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homebrew | Help needed with recipe translation | I'm making the move from brewing all-grain kits to a "full fledged" recipe Weizen. However, I'm having trouble with some of the details: namely quantities and sparging.
Some background: I've been doing small batches (4L) with fermentation on a demijohn. Only done 2 weiss so far.
For those 4L, the instructions I had ask for 3L of mash water and 4L for sparging (which I do by slowly pouring the water over the sieved grain).
I've found the following 5 gallon recipe which I was intending to follow and convert.
My conclusions so far were (please correct me if I'm wrong):
Batch size: 4L.
Boil size: 4.9L (amount of wort ready to be boiled).
Ratio from 5 gallon to 4L is 5.683 (22.73L to 4L), which I used for converting grain and hops' quantities:
Wheat malt: 400g
Pale malt: 320g
Hops: 2.5g + 2.5g
My first question is, how much sparge water should I use?
I believe the method I've used so far is called partial boil since the (kit) recipe says to add remaining water to fermenter to make up for any loss. How easy it'll be to make it a full boil (as most people seem to consider it "better").
(source: brewcraftbeer.co.uk)
Finally, are my calculations correct?
I guess the hops quantities will have to be adjusted according to the AAU of the hops I get?
| VQAonline_00022157.png | There are a bunch of mash water:grain ratios, but generally around 1.5:1 qt./lb. (that's about 1.5 litres per 500 grams).
The software BeerSmith recommends batch sparging your recipe with 4.1 and then 7.1 litres of water. So (assuming you're batch sparging) the first sparge-water addition would be 4.1 litres, and the second 7.1 litres. if you're continuously sparging, ideally you'd be close to finished after something like 4+7 => 11 litres of sparge water have passed through the grain bed.
Really sparging is "washing" sugars from the grain. You want to keep sparging until the wort coming off the grain bed has a specific gravity, say around 1.010 - that is, when nearly all sugars are collected. Obviously you can't sparge all day, and you may not be able to boil that volume of liquid, so you stop at some point.
This is then boiled down to meet the correct gravity. If something went wrong, your volume of boiled wort may not be the amount you expected.
Finally, FWIW: if you really want a "German Style" weizen (hefeweissbier), the type of yeast is very important. I suggest the "Weihenstephan 3068" yeast, available from both White Labs and Wyeast.
| https://homebrew.stackexchange.com/questions/17176 |
hsm | How certain is it that Lucas invented the Towers of Hanoi puzzle? | Wikipedia is unequivocal:
The puzzle was invented by the French mathematician Édouard Lucas in 1883.
I have no reason to doubt this, but given the many legends surrounding the topic,
I wonder if there is not an earlier (even "ancient") source...
(Wikipedia image.)
| VQAonline_00022215.png | The Tower of Hanoi – Myths and Maths gives a detailed historical account of the game, its predecessors and myths surrounding it, with references to original sources, it also goes in-depth into mathematical issues. The Temple of Brahma story was first reported in 1883 by Professor N. Claus (de Siam), mandarin of college Li-Sou-Stian, and was embellished by Henri de Parville, a popular science writer and chief editor of La Nature at the end of 19-th century. He first published it in Revue des Sciences in 1883, and then a year later, with pictures, in La Nature. If de Parville thought the fable would add to the game's popularity he was certainly right. Later authors made it even more colorful, adding details and modifications.
"A mandarin who invents a game about combinations, will incessantly think about combinations", says de Parville. Permuting the letters in N. Claus (de Siam) of college Li-Sou-Stian reveals Lucas d'Amiens of lycee Saint-Louis. That would be Francois Lucas born in the city of Amiens, who taught at the lycee. W.W.R. Ball, a mathematician who translated the fable from French into English in Mathematical Recreations and Essays first published in 1892, called it "a sufficiently pretty conceit to deserve repetition". But if you are not convinced here is a comprehensive bibliography on the Towers of Hanoi. Not one entry dates from before 1883.
| https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/751 |
hsm | Who is Hræðraford, the "learned clerk" "writing in modern chemical Latin"? | Truesdell, C. Rational Thermodynamics. New York, NY: Springer New York, 1984. http://dx.doi.org/10.1007/978-1-4612-5206-1, p. 41 says:
… in the numerous papers and books whose titles and topics include "irreversible"—the learned clerk HRÆðRAFORD, writing in modern chemical Latin, has recently called their field "thermodynamice inreparabilis"—…
Who is this "learned clerk" Hræðraford? Below, the relevant paragraph is shown:
| VQAonline_00022227.png | This is not exactly an answer, but too long for a comment. The quote, even in the attached context, is somewhat incomplete. It follows description of the few (including Duhem and Eckart), who in Truesdell's opinion positively contributed to thermodynamics after Gibbs. In other parts of the book he has pages long critique of what he calls "Onsagerism", i.e. Onsager's reciprocal relations in non-equilibrium (a.k.a. irreversible) thermodynamics. Actually, critique is too mild a word, one gets the idea from the second half of the displayed passage. "HRÆðRAFORD, writing in modern chemical Latin" refers not to Hraedraford, whoever he is, so writing (as I originally misread), but to Truesdell writing his name in "modern chemical Latin". The whole passage is dripping with sarcasm about Onsager's formalism and notation.
I was unable to find any references to this Hraedraford, but this is perhaps not so surprising because the only reason he is cited is for a Latin pun on "irreversible": "thermodynamice inreparabilis", the irreparable thermodynamics, which is what Onsager's formalism is in Truesdell's opinion. The "numerous papers and books" are not Hraedraford's either, so he is likely just some witty learned citizen who came up with a pun Truesdell liked. Interestingly, the introduction and Hraedraford in it only appear in the second 1984 edition of Rational Thermodaynamics, the first 1969 edition does not mention him despite already including a chapter long rage against the "Onsagerism" with an approving mention of Eckart.
| https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/3581 |
hsm | Inscriptions on a 16th century 3-dimensional permutahedron sundial? | Does anyone know what the inscriptions, written presumably in Latin, are on this 3-D permutahedron sundial by Stefano Buonsignori (16th century) in the Medici collection presented by Museo Galileo?
| VQAonline_00022233.png | The following is an e-mail kindly sent to me by Giorgio Strano, a curator at the museum:
Besides the usual "Tropicus Cancri", "AEquator", etc. the sundial contains the following sentences:
"Ad Latitudinem Graduum Quadragintatrium Minutorum Triginta" (For the latitude of 43° 30')
"Sol idem semper, [nec non (?)] semper currit et ue[rtit ('?)]" (The sun is always the same, [however ?] it always runs and [turns around ?])
"Non sic antiq[ui]s notus, nunc tempora monstro" (I show the time of today, not as it was known to the ancients [i.e. the dial shows equal, not unequal hours])
"Surgentem ostendo solem, ostendoq[ue] cadentem" (I show the rising and the setting Sun)
[ (?)] indates plausible integrations of a sentence where the words in the sundial are scratched away
[ ] indicates resolved Latin abbreviations
I hope this information is what you were looking for.
Best regards,
Giorgio Strano
Curator
| https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/5573 |
hsm | Was Einstein the first person to think of the equivalence of a ball drop in an accelerated elevator and a ball drop on Earth? | Consider the following figure taken from Wikipedia.
Was Einstein the first person to think of the equivalence of a ball drop in an elevator with acceleration of $g$ and a ball drop on Earth?
To be honest, I was also thinking of it before I learned relativity in high school.
| VQAonline_00022221.png | Einstein also considered weightlessness in free fall as a manifestation of equivalence between inertial forces and gravity. Although simple drum-rope elevators were constructed as early as 236 BC (by Archimedes) they started to spread after 1854, when Otis gave a dramatic demonstration of his safety catch invention by cutting holding ropes while people were inside. By 1900s a good number of people probably did drop balls in some of them, but as far as we know none of them analyzed the physics involved, or expressed their thoughts in print. This being said, there were authors who imagined what it would be like in a vertically accelerating vehicle, but they wither did not focus on the physics, or did not get it quite right.
Possibly, the first was Islamic polymath Avicenna (c. 980-1037) with his Floating Man argument, the literal translation is "falling man". Avicenna was not concerned with physics, he argued that a person can be self-aware even if from birth deprived of all sensory input, including weight. It is unclear however what Avicenna thought cancels the effect of weight, free fall or air buoyancy. First definite account of weightlessness is attributed to Francis Godwin's novel Man in the Moone (1638) written before Newtonian mechanics was even established. The character is carried upward by birds, who "strooke bolt upright, and never did linne towring upward, and still upward, for the space" until "the Lines slacked; neither I, nor the Engine moved at all, but abode still as having no manner of weight". But Godwin's weightlessness is due to weakening of gravity rather than to inertia countering it:"those things which wee call heavie, do not sinke toward the Center of the Earth, as their naturall place, but as drawen by a secret property of the Globe of the Earth, or rather some thing within the same, in like sort as the Loadstone draweth Iron, being within the compass of the beames attractive".
It is unlikely that Einstein was aware of Godwin, but he might have encountered Jules Verne's novels From Earth to the Moon (1865), and Around the Moon (1870). They were quite popular at the time, and even inspired a 1902 silent film. In them travelers are launched to the Moon from a moongun in a projectile called Columbiad. Verne was aware of the overload forces, and protected his passengers from them with hydraulic and frangible shock absorbers, but it did not occur to him that they would be working like gravity. Moreover, he expected the passengers to feel the pull of gravity throughout the journey despite being mostly in free fall. Only near the "neutral point", where the gravity forces of the Earth and the Moon balance out, did he expect weightlessness:"But that day, about eleven o'clock in the morning, Nicholl having accidentally let a glass slip from his hand, the glass, instead of falling, remained suspended in the air. "Ah!" exclaimed Michel Ardan, "that is rather an amusing piece of natural philosophy"".
In Exploration of Outer Space by Means of Rocket Devices (1903) Tsiolkovsky presented detailed engineering calculations related to launching rockets into space. In particular, he concluded that the Verne's moongun would have to be impossibly long for the passengers to survive the acceleration overloads at take off, and offered rockets as the alternative. But he did not comment either on the gravity like behavior of the inertial forces, or on weightlessness.
| https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/2823 |
hsm | Was "Kepler's third law" deduced from the Galilean moons, or from planetary motion? | I have read that Galileo was able to start observing the four large satellites of Jupiter in 1610. Did he ever attempt to estimate the relative sizes of the four orbits, and their periods?
I made a plot of the period of the four satellites versus their orbit size, as a ratio to the diameter of Jupiter at the equator. That would have been easier to sketch/estimate than absolute size.
Is there any record of a plot or graph somewhat like this - to visualize even qualitatively what kind of relationship there was?
Today one would make a log-log plot and immediately "discover" the 3/2 slope, but logarithms weren't available yet.
About eight years later, Kepler "articulated" what we now call Kepler's third law, the period squared being proportional to the diameter (semi-major axis) cubed. Did that realization come from these moons, or from looking at planetary motion instead?
One reason I ask about the Galilean moons - the eccentricity of orbits of these four moons is very low - their motion would be easily interpreted using just circles, while several planets have significant eccentricity and their positions would require more sophisticated math.
Since the relationship of the planets and that of the Jovian moons would have a different constant - was it immediately interpreted as a measure of the ratio of masses of Jupiter and the Sun?
This is my first question here - the wording may seem colloquial, but my question is serious.
| VQAonline_00022226.png | The Wikipedia article on Harmonices Mundi states that Kepler gave only the conclusion.
Since he had taken all of Brahe's observations, the presumption is that he used this data, for he was very familiar with it, and it was more than adequate for the task. His published result describes the relationship in terms of the sun and planets, but not planets and moons.
See also Was Jupiter's mass “guessed at” by Kepler or Galileo?
| https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/3574 |
hsm | Introduction of $\imath$ and $\jmath$ notations for the imaginary unit | The imaginary unit is generally denoted $i$ or $\imath$. I have learned that the term imaginary ("imaginaires") was coined by R. Descartes in 1637, and the "i" notation was introduced by L. Euler (cf. Short History of Complex Numbers). In engineering and physics, the notation $j$ or $\jmath$ is often used. Some say it was used to limit confusions with the current, often denoted $i$ or "I", as noted at Electric current:
The conventional symbol for current is I, which originates from the
French phrase intensité de courant, meaning current intensity .
My questions are:
Was the $\imath$ (or $i$) notation used before Euler?
Who introduced the $\jmath$ (or $j$) notation?
EDIT: I just found, answering on a different topic about frequency, a mention of the word "cisoid" (abbreviated as $\mathrm{cis}$), I just found Cisoidal Oscillations, 1911, by George A. Campbell, where he writes:
The use of $i$ (or Greek $\imath$) for the imaginary symbol is nearly
universal in mathematical work, which is a very strong reason for
retaining it in the applications of mathematics in electrical
engineering. Aside, however, from the matter of established
conventions and facility of reference to mathematical literature, the
substitution of the symbol $j$ is objectionable because of the vector
terminology with which it has become associated in engineering
literature, and also because of the confusion resulting from the
divided practice of engineering writers, some using $j$ for $+i$ and
others using $j$ for $- i$
So the story is not fully new, and we could date the $j$ before 1911.
| VQAonline_00022230.png | In answer to your second part of the question regarding $j$ for $\sqrt{-1}$, this was introduced into text books describing Power System Analysis of AC power circuits in the early 1900s by Charles P. Steinmetz. I am not sure of the earliest date but my guess is between late 1890s and 1920s but certainly no later than 1923 as Steinmetz died in 1923.
Steinmetz is to Power Systems Engineers (EEs) as Einstein and $E=m c²$ is to physicists (and everyone else for that matter).
You can read all about Charles Steinmetz here.
| https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/5082 |
hsm | Greater-than symbol in Byrne's *The Elements of Euclid* | I was surprised to find that Oliver Byrne's 1847 marvelous The Elements of Euclid (color version)1 uses $\sqsubset$ to mean "greater than" and $\sqsupset$ to mean "less than,"
in contrast our current $>$ and $<$ (p. xxvii).
This is especially puzzling because:
"The symbols < and > first appear in Artis Analyticae Praxis ad Aequationes Algebraicas Resolvendas (The Analytical Arts Applied to Solving Algebraic Equations) by Thomas Harriot (1560-1621)."
link
Any speculation on Byrne's motivation?
To me it seems so non-intuitive that $\sqsubset$ should mean $>$ that I am surprised
it was used in a book that tries to make the math easier to grasp.
Perhaps $\sqsubset$ was in common use in parallel with $>$?
1
Byrne, Oliver. The first six books of the Elements of Euclid: in which coloured diagrams and symbols are used instead of letters for the greater ease of learners. William Pickering, 1847.
| VQAonline_00022263.png | Byrne's symbols are variations of Oughtred's, contamporaneous with Harriot's, see Cajori, History Of Mathematical Notations, vol. I, p.192. They were adopted by Barrow, Newton's teacher, in his edition of Euclid, ibid., p. 210. Why Byrne went with Barrow's notation c. 1660 is hard to say, by his time Harriot's symbols were canonized by Euler, but their origin was not exactly intuition. Perhaps, he felt that it would be "easier to grasp" by those unburdened by entrenched standard. For example, Lambert in 1782 used < and > "in reverse" in his logic, as inspired by implication, see Lewis, Survey of symbolic logic.
On early experiments with various inequality symbols see Tanner, On the Role of Equality and Inequality in the History of Mathematics, p. 167-8. Incidentally, he attaches a confabulation on why Harriot's symbols look the way they do, which, spelled out or not, probably helped their adoption as "intuitive".
Here is a later example of how our related "intuitive" symbols in set theory could have been reversed. Interpreting inference as inclusion of classes was common in the 19th century. Whatever can be said for the implication pointing in the direction it does, if one chooses that as "intuitive" then their inequality symbols should go the opposite way from our today's standard too. Indeed, if something is in A then it is in B (A ⊃ B) means that A must be smaller than B (A ⊂ B), see Why is there this strange contradiction between the language of logic and that of set theory?
Harriot, or rather his editors, derived < and > from a tattoo on a native American's hand, which was symmetric, so what they chose to stand for what was rather random. Derived from this in Schröder's Vorlesungen set inclusion symbol ⊂ then conflicted with the implication symbol ⊃, as used by Peano and later many others. Gergonne earlier derived a similar symbol from the looks of letter C (in "contained"), i.e. equally randomly, see Earliest Uses of Symbols of Set Theory and Logic.
Peano, for his part, was consistent, and used ⊃ for inclusion, as well as implication, see Tou, Math Origins: The Logical Symbols, so his smaller would be >. Peirce, Schröder's inspiration for much of his content, was consistent the other way, his implication looked something like this —<, see Anellis, Peirce's Truth-functional Analysis and the Origin of the Truth Table.
Hilbert's later symbol → for implication similarly conflicts with <, especially when the arrowhead is drawn bigger.
| https://hsm.stackexchange.com/questions/14667 |
islam | Does a hadith "believers who show the most perfect Faith are those who have the best behaviour" exist? | The following image quotes a hadith about marriage. Is it an exact quote or rephrasing of another hadith?
I found another hadith with similar wording but not the exact quote:
Abu Hurairah (May Allah be pleased with him) reported: Messenger of
Allah (ﷺ) said, "The believers who show the most perfect Faith are
those who have the best behaviour, and the best of you are those who
are the best to their wives".
[At-Tirmidhi].
Does a hadith with the exact wording exist?
| VQAonline_00022301.png | The hadith, as shown in the picture you posted, is in Jami' Al-Tirmidhi (Arabic: جامع الترمذي), not in Sahih Muslim. Most likely, the picture is referring to this hadith:
حدثنا أبو كريب قال: حدثنا عبدة بن سليمان، عن محمد بن عمرو قال: حدثنا
أبو سلمة، عن أبي هريرة قال: قال رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم: أكمل
المؤمنين إيمانا أحسنهم خلقا، وخيركم خيركم لنسائهم
Abu Hurairah narrated that The Messenger of Allah said: "The most
complete of the believers in faith, is the one with the best character
among them. And the best of you are those who are best to your women."
— Source: Jami' Al-Tirmidhi, Muhammad ibn Issa at-Tirmidhi,
Vol. 1, Book 7, Hadith 1162)
The wording is almost identical, considering that both are translations. This is an authentic (sahih, Arabic: صحيح) hadith.
| https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/38238 |
islam | What is the significance of being resurrected as "blind (from birth)"? | In Surah Taha, Allah says:
He will say, "My Lord, why have you raised me blind while I was [once]
seeing?" (Surah Taha, verse 125)
From surah 'abasa, we know that the word used here and translated as blind, أَعْمَىٰ (a3maa) means blind from birth. It does not refer to a person who acquired blindness during their lifetime after having the ability to see.
This seems interesting -- that a person who, by their own admission, could see in their dunya life, is now resurrected blind (from birth). What is the significance of the word a'maa here, as opposed to a different word that could have been used to describe "could once see but is now blind"?
| VQAonline_00022269.png | In tafseer, scholars commented that this means the person will have no proof to justify his deeds in dunya (world). There will be no evidence supporting him.
Mujahid, Abu Salih and As-Suddi said,
"This means he will have no proof."
`Ikrimah said,
"He will be made blind to everything except Hell."
It is because of what Allah the Exalted says in Surah Al-Isra :
And We shall gather them together on the Day of Resurrection on their
faces, blind, dumb and deaf; their abode will be Hell. [Qur'an
17:97]
Source: Tafseer Ibn Katheer
| https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/1569 |
islam | Is Non-vegetarian Cheese halal | My question is specifically regarding Pesto I have been having for a few weeks, until last Friday when I noticed the words Non vegetarian cheese.
Please see this image:
I am wondering whether to continue enjoying this product or to throw it away. Both the cheese mentioned in this product, Padano Cheese & Pecorino Romano Cheese appear to be milk based.
My question is, is this halal to consume or should I err on the side of caution & throw it away.
Thank you.
| VQAonline_00022313.png | UPDATE:
It seems like (thanks to the answerer below) the product contains potentially one haram ingredient namely rennet. It is extracted from the stomach of animals.
Traditional animal rennet is an enzyme derived from the stomachs of calves, lambs or goats before they consume anything but milk. Vegetable rennet is obtained from a type of mold (Mucur Miehei). However, even though it is derived from mold, there is no mold contained in the final product. It is an equivalent chymosin product which works equally well but is not animal derived.
I've skimmed the following articles for something haram based on the ingredients shown on the image, it seems you're not good to go. The only thing I'm concerned with is that it also shows the use of European and non-european products but it isn't specified. Inshallah there will be nothing haram in it.
So, I'd say enjoy your new vegetarian pesto. ;)
Apologies for the mistake.
Sources:
https://islamqa.info/en/114129
https://islamqa.info/en/219137
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grana_Padano
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glucono_delta-lactone
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pecorino_Romano
https://www.cheesemaking.com/learn/faq/rennet.html
L.S.:
If you want to get more info about the etiquette of eating in islam, feel free to go to the link below.
https://islamqa.info/en/13348
| https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/49176 |
islam | Can water be halal or haram? | On a flight from Tokyo to Sydney with Japan Airlines, I was given a bottle of water that was certified halal. (Apologies for the image quality)
Do Muslims consider water as being potentially halal or haram, or was this a case of certification going overboard? (I can spot four other certifications on the bottle)
| VQAonline_00022283.png | Pure water by itself is fundamentally halal. If there are haram impurities involved, the water would also become haram; not because of the water itself, but because of what's in it. So, for example, if it was drawn from a small pool in which someone was storing their dead pig carcasses, we shouldn't drink it (most would chalk that up to common sense though).
It's always nice to know that there were no pig carcasses involved in the production of your water, but I would call the certification overkill in this case.
Of note, if the water is not actually pure bottled water, but rather some brand of flavoured/enriched water, there is an increased chance that the additives themselves are haram. Given that a number of common additives are of animal origin, the certification makes more sense in such cases.
| https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/8579 |
islam | What is the name of the script used in the earliest Qurʾānic manuscripts? | I've seen it transliterated into English as ma'ili which supposedly means "inclined" or "slanting." I'm looking for the Arabic word. Is it مائلي?
| VQAonline_00022284.png | It is written مائل (maa'il) in Arabic, which does indeed mean slanted. Another name for this early script is حجازي (hijazi) in reference to it originating from the Hijaz region of the Arabian Peninsula.
Later Quranic manuscripts switched to Kufic which is a reference to the city of Kufa in Iraq where it was first developed.
| https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/8608 |
islam | How to accurately translate ترك in the context of the hadith "Between man and polytheism and unbelief is the [abandonment/negligence] of prayer"? | There are two similar ahadith with different translations:
إِنَّ بَيْنَ الرَّجُلِ وَبَيْنَ الشِّرْكِ وَالْكُفْرِ تَرْكَ الصَّلاَةِ
Verily between man and between polytheism and unbelief is the negligence of prayer.
Sahih Muslim 82 a
بَيْنَ الرَّجُلِ وَبَيْنَ الشِّرْكِ وَالْكُفْرِ تَرْكُ الصَّلاَةِ
Between man and polytheism and unbelief is the abandonment of salat.
Sahih Muslim 82 b
It looks like the relevant Arabic word is ترك, which Wiktionary translates to to leave, to relinquish. The impression I get from the English translation is that it means permanently.
Question: How to accurately translate ترك in the context of the hadith "Between man and polytheism and unbelief is the [abandonment/negligence] of prayer"?
This is relevant to my previous question here: Can someone end up leaving Islam through neglect?
Google Translate gives a ranking of translations, favouring "leave" over "neglect":
| VQAonline_00022309.png | Tark تَركَ can mean to leave/abandon/release with an open probability to get back to something, whereas in the context of the hadeeth, The word Tark تَركَ gives the notion of ceasing to pray, whether that is permanent or willingly temporary.
Dismissing Prayers
A related verse that sheds light on the topic of the hadeeth is :
فَخَلَفَ مِن بَعْدِهِمْ خَلْفٌ أَضَاعُوا الصَّلَاةَ وَاتَّبَعُوا
الشَّهَوَاتِ ۖ فَسَوْفَ يَلْقَوْنَ غَيًّا - 19:59
sahih International translation
But there came after them successors who neglected prayer and pursued
desires; so they are going to meet evil -
Yousuf Ali Translation
But after them there followed a posterity who missed prayers and
followed after lusts soon, then, will they face Destruction,-
Quranic wording
Allah, exalted He is, eloquently used the term أَضَاعُوا which means originally to lose something... you lose due to negligence, or you lose if you are willingly not paying attention or taking care. I think you can see how this word covers the meaning, which is permanent or willingly temporary.
Tark تَرَكَ in Quran
For your reference, the word Tark تَرَكَ in Quran can be one of three meanings:
To reject/abandon/leave intentionally
وَتَرَكْنَا بَعْضَهُمْ يَوْمَئِذٍ يَمُوجُ فِي بَعْضٍ ۖ وَنُفِخَ فِي
الصُّورِ فَجَمَعْنَاهُمْ جَمْعًا -
18:99 And We will leave them that day surging over each other, and
[then] the Horn will be blown, and We will assemble them in [one]
assembly.
another example of leaving willingly, on purpose
وَاتْرُكِ الْبَحْرَ رَهْوًا ۖ إِنَّهُمْ جُندٌ مُّغْرَقُونَ - 44:24 And
leave the sea in stillness. Indeed, they are an army to be drowned."
The other meaning that appeared in Quran is to be forced/unwillingly to leave/abandon something
كَمْ تَرَكُوا مِن جَنَّاتٍ وَعُيُونٍ - 44:25 How much they left behind
of gardens and springs
Third Meaning is what a person leaves as inheritance after death
يَسْتَفْتُونَكَ قُلِ اللَّهُ يُفْتِيكُمْ فِي الْكَلَالَةِ ۚ إِنِ
امْرُؤٌ هَلَكَ لَيْسَ لَهُ وَلَدٌ وَلَهُ أُخْتٌ فَلَهَا نِصْفُ مَا
تَرَكَ ۚ وَهُوَ يَرِثُهَا إِن لَّمْ يَكُن لَّهَا وَلَدٌ ۚ فَإِن
كَانَتَا اثْنَتَيْنِ فَلَهُمَا الثُّلُثَانِ مِمَّا تَرَكَ ۚ وَإِن
كَانُوا إِخْوَةً رِّجَالًا وَنِسَاءً فَلِلذَّكَرِ مِثْلُ حَظِّ
الْأُنثَيَيْنِ ۗ يُبَيِّنُ اللَّهُ لَكُمْ أَن تَضِلُّوا ۗ وَاللَّهُ
بِكُلِّ شَيْءٍ عَلِيمٌ - 4:176
They request from you a [legal] ruling. Say, " Allah gives you a
ruling concerning one having neither descendants nor ascendants [as
heirs]." If a man dies, leaving no child but [only] a sister, she will
have half of what he left. And he inherits from her if she [dies and]
has no child. But if there are two sisters [or more], they will have
two-thirds of what he left. If there are both brothers and sisters,
the male will have the share of two females. Allah makes clear to you
[His law], lest you go astray. And Allah is Knowing of all things.
And Allah knows best.
| https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/45098 |
islam | Is this bid’ah ? Praying two volontary raka’ats | I heard on a trusted Youtube channel (IloveUAllah) that to make shaytan hate to give you whispers and make you lazy for salat you can pray 2 rakats to make the shaytan less powerful.
Is it bid’ah to do it ? Is it bid’ah because there is a limited amount of (waajib and sunnah and nafl) voluntary prayers one can do in a full day ? Jazzakumu Allah.
| VQAonline_00022323.png | Praying two raka'as nafl can never be a bid'ah because nafl (voluntary acts) have no limitation.
For example there's a known hadith (see here) about Bilal () using to perform two raka'as nafl after each wudu'.
What could be a bid'ah is considering it a Sunnah of the prophet to pray two raka'as in order to weaken Shaytan without any proof. And what would be worse is telling others to follow this "sunnah".
It could rather be better (or sunnah) to consider doing similar to Bilal, as this was approved by our prophet ().
| https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/69179 |
italian | Italian from 1600 - what is this letter? | I bought an old book in Italian. It's a collection of letters, published in 1600 in Venezia. What is this strange letter (and word)? It's the first letter of the second word.
Ho comprato un libro antico italiano.
È una collezione di lettere, pubblicata nel 1600 a Venezia.
Qual è questa strana lettera, all'inizio della seconda parola?
| VQAonline_00022339.png | I think it's the word "perfetto" (see this list of scribal abbreviations).
Mi sembra che sia la parola "perfetto" (vedi questo elenco di abbreviazioni scribali).
| https://italian.stackexchange.com/questions/7414 |
italian | Why is perché sometimes written perchè instead of perché? | If using a grave accent as opposed to an acute accent on top of letters e and o in Italian is used to denote a difference in pronunciation when these appear on the last syllable of the word, and such syllable happens to be stressed, with è being an open e and é a closed e, then why is the Italian word perché sometimes written as perchè across the Internet instead of as perché?
After all, I've always heard the last vowel of this word being pronounced as a closed e. Could the reason for this orthographic rule be due to differences in regional pronunciations, or is there some other reason?
UPDATE:
In response to a comment in one of the answers given below, his is an image of a magazine for kids that was popular in the late 1980s and early 1990s, perhaps even later (not sure if it still exists, haven't checked!). Anyways, it illustrates two different spellings of one particular word, one using the grave accent, and the other using the acute accent, on the very same place (and this is not a misprint, this is a sample representative of thousands of magazines each of whose cover page is similar): PIÙ and Piú. Of course, in the case of 'u' there is only way to pronounce this vowel in Italian; there is no distinction made between an open pronunciation and a closed pronunciation as is the case with the letters e and o, so perhaps this does not matter much here.
(SOURCE: Link to the page where I downloaded this image)
| VQAonline_00022330.png | There's more than one reason for that.
The structure of the Italian keyboard
I believe that the major reason has to be researched in the Italian keyboard: indeed, the key for è and é is the same. If it is pressed without any other keys, it outputs "è", while if it's used in combination with "Maiusc", it outputs "é".
My guess is that many people simply forget to press "Maiusc", they're too lazy to do that or they don't know that doing so will output the "e" with an other accent.
Lack of knowledge of the difference
There are plenty of Italians that simply don't know the difference between the two accents, hence they tend to always use the grave one.
This is mostly caused by the education in primary school: indeed, children are often taught the existance of just one, generic accent.
Belief that the difference between the two accents is irrelevant
Italian mother-tongues often don't need to distinguish between the two accents in order to spell a word (relatively) correctly, so they might think that the difference between them is so minimal that it's not worth distinguishing them.
| https://italian.stackexchange.com/questions/3896 |
italian | Help to read Atto di nascita | I need help to read my grand-parent's 'atto di nascita'. See a piece of it in the attached image.
Following is what I can understand. Please help me with '...' (maybe the last part is his parents address)
Lucia Serra di anni trentotto .... domiciliata in Spezzano e de ... Giovanni Caliò di anni ... muratore
domiciliato in Spezzano ......... propria casa.
Thank you
| VQAonline_00022346.png | This is my best shot (what a peculiar handwriting!):
[lo stesso è nato] Da Lucia Serra di anni trentotto, filatrice, domiciliata in Spezzano e da suo marito Giovanni Caliò di anni trentasei, muratore, domiciliato in Spezzano, nel dì ventisei detto mese ed anno alle ore due di notte nella propria casa.
Which translated roughly as
[said person was born] from Lucia Serra, thirty-eight years old, spinner, resident in Spezzano and from her husband Giovanni Caliò, thirty-six years old, bricklayer, resident in Spezzano, on the twenty-sixth of the aforementioned month and year at two o'clock in the morning in their own house.
| https://italian.stackexchange.com/questions/10619 |
italian | "la sindaco".. - nuova tendenza o semplicemente un typo? | Essendo di madrelingua italiana e vivendo in Germania, non mi scandalizza affatto la, tanto discussa, femminizzazione dei titoli, delle cariche e dei nomi di professione e simili a seconda del contesto (verso una lingua, quasi, asessuata oserei dire - opinione personale questa scaturita dal parallelo con Die Feministische Linguistik che incontrai a lezione, qualche anno fa, di tedesco qui in Germania).
Leggendo qualche articolo sul sito dell Accademia della Crusca (e oltre), una interminabile discussione su wikipedia anche, Panico linguistico su nomi di cariche e professioni di genere femminile, e poi anche in italian.stackexchange, e sul sito della Treccani, mi ero abituato a usare "la sindaca" ed altri ancora, ma nemmeno il tempo di farci l'abitudine che mi ritrovo a leggere "la sindaco" da una pagina de "Il Fatto Quotidiano", ovvero:
Come propone la sindaco di Barcellona Ada Colau, indicendo dal 9 all’11 giugno un incontro nella sua città, con la partecipazione degli aderenti al movimento Fearless Cities, città senza paura.
Personalmente metterei in dubbio che si intenda "la sindaco" in senso ironico se non addirittura dispregiativo (Ada Colau non è una donnetta); tanto meno riesco a pensare che sia un refuso/typo/lapsus durante una qualche misteriosa digitazione (anche se lo spero).
Ad ogni modo, è possibile scrivere "la sindaco"? Qualora no, perché? Può sembrare banale come domanda, e se tale risulta chiedo venia, tuttavia dinanzi a questi nuovi termini femminili ancora oggi trovo non tanto immediato, in certi casi, una regola schietta che mi permetta di rispondere alla domanda suddetta aldilà di un approccio da madrelingua e d'uso quotidiano. Per me la grande questione era se usare il maschile "ovunque" o ammettere termini femminili per le donne scritti secondo le regole, e l uso era tra "il sindaco" e il naturale "la sindaca" (e non "la sindaco"), ma non vorrei che quelli del Fatto Quotidiano scrivano correttamente e magari inaugurano un nuovo uso del termine...
| VQAonline_00022340.png | Le forme più comuni sono la sindaca... o il sindaco... seguito dal nome femminile. La sindaco sembra un'espressione eccentrica ma non di uso comune. Personalmente la eviterei.
La sindaca è donna, non una donna sindaco:
Fra tutti i dubbi, questo è quello che meno ci tormenta. Complice la recente elezione di Raggi e Appendino, a Roma e Torino, possiamo affermare che il sostantivo che qualifica il primo cittadino (la prima cittadina, anzi!) abbiamo finalmente imparato a usarlo come si deve: facile facile, con la a, al posto della o; al femminile, cioè, se riferito a una donna. Vale lo stesso per l'utilizzo di ministra, sdoganato a tutti gli effetti. E a chi cerca le vie di mezzo e insiste a definire Boschi la ministro, ecco l'esempio a cui guardare: direste mai la maestro, pur avendo la versione femminile di quella parola, lì, a portata di mano?
(www.repubblica.it)
Come si dice correttamente sindaco al femminile? È corretto chiamare "sindaco" anche una donna?
Non siamo di fronte a una questione di correttezza grammaticale, ma di adeguatezza nel trattare i nomi di mestiere al femminile.
*Chi scrive il sindaco Anna Rossi non sbaglia, semplicemente preferisce usare il nome di mestiere sindaco trattandolo come se fosse una sorta di “neutro”, inclusivo dei riferimenti di genere maschile e femminile, che si riferisce a una categoria professionale in termini di funzione generale.
Chi scrive sindaca adopera con efficacia le risorse flessive messe tranquillamente a disposizione dalla nostra lingua: sindaco/sindaca, avvocato/avvocata, postino/postina, ecc. seguono la normale alternanza nominale di genere maschile/femminile, espressa attraverso le uscite -o e -a.
(www.treccani.it)
Ci sono alcuni altri esempi dell'uso "la sindaco" come:
Da Dalle pratiche di partecipazione all’e-democracy: Analisi di casi concreti ...
Cinque anni dopo la sconfitta del 1999, per vincere le nuove elezioni contro la sindaco uscente, Giustina Destro, su consiglio del suo regista per la campagna elettorale, Marco Marturano, che cinque anni prima aveva portato alla vittoria la candidata Destro.
Da
Educazione democratica per una pace giusta:
La sindaco di Napoli trovava significativo che tutte le personalità studiate nel mio volume avessero « condiviso, seppure in tempi e contesti profondamente diversi
| https://italian.stackexchange.com/questions/8188 |
italian | What are the meanings of these convincing phrases and where exactly do we use them in Italian? |
dai
su
forza
avanti
coraggio
The above words have the same meaning which is "come on". I like to know why there are so many words for just one phrase "come on" in Italian. What I want to know is their precise contexts. Here are some examples that I have found:
| VQAonline_00022341.png | I would say that something like "dai" is probably the most generic. I can imagine it being used in all those sentences correctly.
Coraggio literally means courage, so I would imagine it more as being used in a situation when you need to build up a bit of "courage", even in a metaphorical way.
"Su" literally means "up". It can be used as to cheer up someone, or to spur someone to do something. So, if I was asking a friend about how a dress looks on me, and she used "su", that would feel more like "just take this dress and let's finish this, we've been around shops for three hours already!".
"Forza" literally means "strength". I can imagine it being used, again, when inciting someone, ("forza, ancora qualche minuto di cammino e siamo arrivati" -> "Come on, some more minutes of walking and we'll get there"), or to encourage. Actually, "Coraggio" would work exactly the same in this context, especially if the person you're speaking to really looks very tired. And also "su" and "dai" would be ok, although especially the latter would probably implicitly express "stop complaining".
"Avanti" I think transmit more the message of "go on", which to be fair would make it suitable for this context.
There are also many other words that can be used, as someone already pointed, and I would say that the differences in using some more than others may be also regional, or even just personal choice actually more then anything else.
Also for these words I guess the intonation would matter as well to convey the message.
| https://italian.stackexchange.com/questions/8374 |
italian | Perché questa frutta si chiama "tabacchiera"? | Durante un recente viaggio in Italia ho scoperto che la frutta della fotografia si chiama "tabacchiera", parola che mi è sembrata molto curiosa.
(Fonte della immagine)
Beh, perlomeno è così come la chiamava il fruttivendolo perché non ho trovato questa accezione in nessuno dei dizionari che ho consultato. Si trova qualcosa su Wikipedia, ma non so fino a che punto le informazioni che si includono là sono affidabili (la prima cosa che si vede è una frase evidenziata e indicata come "senza fonte").
La mia domanda è: da dove proviene questo nome, "tabacchiera", per questa frutta? Veramente si chiama così perché assomiglia a una tabacchiera? (personalmente non riesco a immaginare una scatoletta per tabacco con la forma di questa frutta). In spagnolo usiamo il termine "paraguayo" per designarla (in catalano sono "paraguaians", ma non so perché è una di quelle parole che, perlomeno a Barcellona, quasi tutti dicono in castigliano): non so neanche da dove proviene questo nome (e non ho trovato nulla al riguardo), forse dovrei chiederlo in Spanish.SE.
| VQAonline_00022342.png | Su questo blog ho trovato:
È la pesca “Tabacchiera” così chiamata per la sua forma piatta, a
disco, che ricorda appunto quella di una tabacchiera.
In questo altro blog invece
Il suo nome scientifico è Prunis persica, varietà platycarpa ossia dal
corpo piatto: la tabacchiera appartiene a pieno diritto alla famiglia
delle pesche. Fu introdotta in Europa attraverso la Persia, pur se le
sue origini sono cinesi, come per diverse piante della famiglia delle
Rosacee ormai diventate comuni in Europa quali il ciliegio e il melo.
In Sicilia l’antica pesca tabacchiera La sua è una storia curiosa. È opinione comune che la si chiami tabacchiera nel Sud Italia e
saturnia o saturnina al Centro Nord. Le forme più antiche di questa
pianta si sono sempre chiamate tabacchiera.
Come utilmente sottolineato da @DaG anche su Zanichelli si può trovare un riferimento:
pesca tabacchiera, varietà a forma schiacciata, profumo intenso, polpa
bianca, succosa e dolce, coltivata in aree limitate della Sicilia e
della Romagna.
| https://italian.stackexchange.com/questions/9815 |
italian | "Bello bello, chiaro chiaro e tondo tondo". What does this mean? | This phrase has appeared several times while I was looking up the word tondo.
Bello bello, chiaro chiaro e tondo tondo.
Pretty pretty, clear clear and round round?
Really? Or is it just a repetitive sentence that sounds nice in Italian to calm someone or some animal down?
Why would you say this? What would be its closest meaning? Are there other phrases like this that are commonly used? Is THIS a commonly used phrase?
Okay - I have been looking further... I am also finding the phrase
chiaro e tondo which seems to mean clear and simple, or bluntly or pure and simple. Could it be that the original phrase is just "verbal filler"?
| VQAonline_00022337.png | Given the clarification in the comments, I am quite confident that this is simply a case of repetition for emphasis. The sentence in question is
Questo è il fatto... bello bello, chiaro chiaro e tondo tondo. Mio padre mi insegnò che è obbligo dare soccorso a mare
(Incidentally this sentence sounds a bit weird. It's not wrong but I would not consider it an example of "good Italian". Apparently it comes from some subtitle but I was unable to track down the movie in question. I have to assume that there is some visual context that explains it)
My interpretation is that it is a modification of the following
Questo è il fatto... Bello, chiaro e tondo
That we can roughly translate as
This is the long and short of it, without any possible ambiguity
(From chiaro e tondo, which means plainly, without mincing words, unambiguously, with an added bello for emphasis)
The speaker however repeats all the words in the expression twice in order to add further emphasis. This is not something I would commonly use. However the expression chiaro e tondo is quite common (ex: Te lo dico chiaro e tondo, I'm telling you plainly).
Just to add to your initial motivation for looking up this word: tono tondo is not a common Italian turn of phrase either. I can imagine using it to discuss some singer or musician (as in Her voice has a beautiful, round, tone in that passage) but that's about it, and even this is fairly uncommon.
| https://italian.stackexchange.com/questions/6580 |
japanese | What's the joke in this 4コマ comic? | In this 4コマ漫画{まんが}, a four panel comic, a young attractive woman walks through a station ticket gate, but there's something wrong with her ticket. The station attendant calls after her, first by calling out お客{きゃく}さん！, which is "customer" or "passenger", a usual way for a staff to refer to a patron. She does not respond. So then he calls out おネエさん！, which is something like "miss" or "young lady". She still does not respond. He calls out おネエさま！, which is again "miss" or "young lady" or something like that, just with the politeness upped a little. She does not respond.
Finally, he calls out お嬢{じょう}さま！. Which, as far as I've understood its usage, is still just a way of saying "young woman" or "daughter". My dictionary also says it means "unmarried woman".
My feeling is that this comic isn't wildly hysterical in any case, but there's some kind of nuance to the fact that she only responds to お嬢{じょう}さま！ that is supposed to be kind of amusing. But to my non-native Japanese level of comprehension, it's just different ways of referring to a young woman, so I'm not seeing the extra connotations that support the humour.
What is it about her responding only to お嬢{じょう}さま！ that is in any way noteworthy? Is the fact that the man beside her is more distant from her in the last panel relevant (in that he is clearly not her husband)?
Lastly, I thought おネエさん！ would be too casual for a station attendant. Wouldn't it translate to something like "hey, babe"?
| VQAonline_00022415.png | About the nuance of お嬢さま.
The difference is visual. Someone described as お嬢様, besides being a young unmarried female, has also cultivated (or been raised to have) a sense of upper-class refinement, most immediately evident through her appearance and attitude. Perhaps in between Scarlett O'Hara and Holly Golightly?
Looking closely at that フジ三太郎 comic strip, there's a suggestion of erectness in the straight shoulders; of an elegant gate, in the slight to-and-fro swish of the skirt; of luxury, in the chicness of the clothes, particularly the chain-link strap of the purse; and in the long straight hair and slight makeup, of a self-awareness of girlish attractiveness. It takes the ticket attendant a moment to recognize how these signs distinguish her from a woman who just happens to be young, i.e., an おねえさん.
Perhaps it's proof of this perception of mine that, until I looked it up just now on WWWJDIC, I had always thought 嬢 meant "princess".
Thanks for the question and introducing me to a new comic strip.
| https://japanese.stackexchange.com/questions/12054 |
japanese | What is a newspaper 段, exactly? | Does this bit contain 2段, for instance?
Would 3段抜き refer to a write-up containing 3 such 段?
| VQAonline_00022453.png | Your picture contains 5段【だん】. In other words, this picture is 5段【だん】組【ぐみ】のレイアウト.
段【だん】抜【ぬ】き refers to a long heading or figure which spans multiple 段.
In your example, the purple heading with "日本語組版の特徴と事例" is called 2段抜きの見出し, and the other one is 3段抜き.
Reference: Adobe InDesign CS5 段抜き見出し
| https://japanese.stackexchange.com/questions/23054 |
japanese | what is the dakuten katakana character in the image? | what is the dakuten katakana character in the image ?
Seem the image say Xサ?What is the X ?
| VQAonline_00022618.png | It's グサ, a common onomatopoeia for a sound of "stab". It also describes how someone's harsh word sticks into your heart. It's listed on jisho.org in the form ぐさりと.
It looks like ワ, too, but ワ does not take dakuten, as you know.
| https://japanese.stackexchange.com/questions/56905 |
japanese | What does そうするの mean here? | I came across this phrase in Yotsubato! manga. (ch.82, pg.35)
Source: http://raw.senmanga.com/Yotsubato!/82/35
What does そうするの mean here (middle panel)? As far as I can tell, the の is most probably an explanatory の. I think it means "yea just like that" or literally "to do so" but the literal meaning somehow doesn't feel right. I think it is most probably "just like that" from reading the text bubble that comes before it but I am confused here.
I tried searching そうするの on the web but couldn't find much that relates to above context. As a phrase what does そうするの mean here? I couldn't find any more examples that use そうするの. Any examples would be welcome.
| VQAonline_00022580.png | The の expresses 命令 (imperative/command). According to デジタル大辞泉:
の
2⃣［終助］活用語の連体形に付く。
３ 強く決めつけて命令する意を表す。「余計なことを言わないの」「遊んでばかりいないで勉強するの」
And 明鏡国語辞典 says:
の
㊁〘終助〙
❹ 軽く命じるのに使う。「さっさと着替えるの」「強い子は泣かないの」
◈(表現) ㊁は多く女性が使う... ④は子供など目下の相手に対して使う。
This の is a sentence-ending particle (終助詞) expressing a relatively light command. It's often used by females, normally towards someone who is inferior to or younger than the speaker.
そう。そうするの。
lit. "Yes. Do (it) that way."
So here the girl is talking to her dad a little arrogantly (but that might be how she usually talks to him?)
| https://japanese.stackexchange.com/questions/47606 |
japanese | What is the first meaning of たたき台? | たたき台 means a springboard for discussion.
According to my dictionary, this word's first meaning is "chopping block".
On Google Images, it does not look like the plastic/wood board I use to cut meat/vegetables:
So what is the non-abstract meaning of たたき台?
ALC does not have it.
| VQAonline_00022371.png | There are a lot of meanings related to たたき台 (as noted by the comments and posts above.)
In one case (from your picture posted above,) たたき台 actually means something like "a pounding stand" for baseball gloves. (Along with a たたき台, there is also another tool used when pounding baseball gloves like this, called a たたき棒; the actual glove-hitting tool.)
When you buy a typical baseball glove, it is usually made out of some sort of leather. Leather usually requires some sort of maintenance from time to time (and especially before a glove, in this case, is first used.)
One type of glove maintenance is the art of "creating a pocket" so that a baseball fielder can more-easily catch a fly-ball... or field a ground ball... during a game of baseball.
The following (commercial) website describes what the process of "creating a pocket" can look like:
http://bba.co.jp/kakou-teire_shinka.html (see step 7)
| https://japanese.stackexchange.com/questions/4859 |
japanese | Words for Ginkgo in Japanese: ぎんきょう and ぎんなん | I decided to read about the words for Ginkgo in Japanese (as in Ginkgo biloba).
I was surprised to learn that Ginkgo comes from Japanese! According to
Wikipedia, Engelbert Kaempfer, while writing the Amoenitatum exoticarum, read the kanji 銀杏 as ぎんきょう. He romanized this reading as Ginkjo, which was then unfortunately misprinted as Ginkgo, resulting in the spelling used in many Western languages today.
From the same article, I see that イチョウ is a common word for Ginkgo plants, apparently from the Chinese 鴨脚. It seems that this word was assigned to the kanji 銀杏 as a jukujikun reading, and we can see that both readings existed 300 years ago, because Kaempfer also transcribed イチョウ (as Itsjo).
In fact, 銀杏 has a third reading, ぎんなん. Similar to ぎんきょう, it appears that this reading was made by putting two on'yomi together: ぎん＋あん＝ぎんあん→ぎんなん. But here's what makes me curious about the difference between the readings: 大辞林 and 大辞泉 only list ぎんなん, not ぎんきょう. And 300 years ago, Kaempfer only transcribed ぎんきょう, not ぎんなん.
It seems that both ぎんきょう and ぎんなん mean the same thing (Ginkgo plants or seeds). But what is the relationship between the two readings?
Did ぎんなん replace ぎんきょう, making the latter obsolete?
Or are both readings still used?
| VQAonline_00022401.png | 杏 has as three 音読み, namely アン, キョウ, コウ, of which Kaempfer transcribed the first two (including ギンナン, as the picture shows). I don't consider too far a stretch of the imagination to think that Kaempfer simply asked for readings 銀杏, and was told that you can read it as ギンキョウ, ギンナン, or イチョウ.
The text accompanying the picture says that the seed was called ギンナン (already in 1700). (He describes it resembling a "Persian pistachio", just twice as big.) He also says that イチョウ was the common name for the tree.
In current usage, too, 銀杏 is read ぎんなん and means the seed of the Gingko tree. (In fact many supermarkets do sell Gingko seeds under the name 銀杏.) The tree itself is called イチョウ, which may also be written 銀杏, by 熟字訓, like you said.
I think we can conclude that ギンナン did not replace ギンキョウ, but rather ギンキョウ has fallen out of use with the common name イチョウ surviving in its place.
| https://japanese.stackexchange.com/questions/11457 |
japanese | definition and usage of ~いずれも | I was struggling to translate the following poster in a rigorous manner, more specifically to Korean, which is a LOT easier than translating Japanese to English.
It says "2016年レギュラーシーズン公式戦の西武プリンスドーム開催試合においていずれも当日、残席がある場合のみ"
Now I have divided the phrase "-開催試合においていずれも当日" into
"-開催試合において" / "いずれも当日"
"Regarding Prince Dome Games" / "???? the day"
And from the context I've concluded that the phrase really means
"All Prince Dome games regardless of the day" and subsequently,
"The game is free only if it is a regular season game @ Prince Dome, and if there are free seats left."
Which sounds pretty reasonable, but I still can't really pinpoint the definition of the word "いずれも," and Googling didn't help at all.
I was thinking "all," but why the phrase when we have 全部 or すべて?
| VQAonline_00022505.png | 全部 or すべて sound more like all of them (in a batch, or all together), whereas いずれも sounds more like each of them, any of them (individually, separately). In the context of your example, いずれも applies to the games -- not the days -- which have free seating only if 当日、残席がある -- i.e., seating in any given game is free if there are seats left on the day of that game.
Note too that the "free" here is 自由, meaning that seats are not assigned. This is not "free" as in 無料, meaning that there is no charge.
PS: いずれも and どれも are synonyms. Modern どれ is a phonetic evolution of older いずれ.
| https://japanese.stackexchange.com/questions/33132 |
judaism | Meya - mi yodeya? |
Who knows one hundred?
Please cite/link your sources, if possible. At some point in the future, subject to holiday and user activity delay, I will:
Upvote all interesting answers.
Accept the best answer.
Go on to the next number.
| VQAonline_00022859.png | Ok, 100, here we go!
The Heichal of the second Beish Hamikdash was 100 amos tall. -msh210
..and 100 amos long.
..and 100 amos wide.
Brochos to say each day -JeremyR
100 times ש״ם is written in Tehillim. -Yahu
100 amos2 where the Kohanim walked on top of the exterior altar. -msh210
100 children of Kayin. -Gershon Gold
100 people that Elish fed miraculously. -msh210
100 cc's in the Chazon Ish's K'beitzah -msh210
Shem was 100 years old when his son Arpachshad was born. -msh210
100 prophets that OVadya hid from Izevel. -msh210
100 is the number used for large examples in Rabbinic literature. -msh210
100 amos that water must travel underground before it's considered a spring when it comes back up. -msh210
100 amos tall was Adam. -msh210
100 amos around a grave that there might still be body parts. -msh210
100 amos is how far the carob tree moved. -msh210
100 זוז in a woman's second marriage kesubah. -Gershon Gold
100 walk-amos is the duration of a light sleep. -Isaac Moses
100 Shofar blasts on Rosh Hashana. -Isaac Moses
100 species of impure birds in the east. -Isaac Moses
100 is how much Yaakov paid for real-estate near Sh'chem. -msh210
100 years will still be young at death says Yechezkel HaNavi. -msh210
100 years old when Sarah still looked like 20. -msh210
100 zuz wants another 100 zuz. -Isaac Moses
100 silver that a מוציא שם רע pays. -Yahu
100 times that "שמים" is written in Torah. -Yahu
Torah learning is 100 times more valuable in difficult circumstances. -Isaac Moses
100 times that you must have said Mashiv Haruach, before you can assume that you say the right one without thinking. -ArghMo
Heter 100 Rabbis. -ArghMo
100 silver sockets for the Mishkan. -YDK
100 answers for the missing miracle question. -Isaac Moses
Meah Shearim. -Yahu
The cross-sectional area of the Mishkan (viewed from the East or West) was 100 square cubits (10x10). -Isaac Moses
100 times the chullin must outnumber the terumah to be able to use the mixture. -Dave
100 years old was Avraham when Yitzchak was born. -jutky
100 Rabbis from R' Moshe Feinstein's home town. -Alex
100 amos was the length of the Mishkan's courtyard. -Dave
100 zuz in a maneh. -Shalom
100 times the word בנימן is in Tanach. -Shalom
100 times the word האחד is in Tanach. -Shalom
100 reviews which is incomparable to 101 reviews (Chagiga 9b) -HodofHod because..
100 reviews is what was common in Talmudic times (brought in Tanya Ch. 15) -HodofHod
100 zuz is the value of virginity at the time of marriage.
100 clusters of raisins that Tziva brought to Dovid. (2 Shmuel 16) -HodofHod
100 summer fruits that Tziva brought to Dovid. (ibid.) -HodofHod
"The city that went forth a thousand shall have a hundred left" (Amos 5:3) -HodofHod
"And five of you shall chase a hundred, and a hundred of you shall chase ten thousand". (Vayikra 26:8). -HodofHod
בן מאה שנים כאילו עבר ובטל מן העולם. -Dave
אַרְתַּחְשַׁסְתְּא guaranteed Ezra 100 talents of silver.
..and 100 measures of wheat.
..and 100 baths of wine.
..and 100 baths of oil. (Ezra 7:22) -HodofHod
"A rebuke entereth deeper into a man of understanding than a hundred stripes into a fool." (Mishlei 17:10) -HodofHod
100 amos was the length of King Solomon's house. (1 Kings 7:2) -HodofHod
100 sheep that King Solomon's court went through, a day! (1 Kings 5:3) -HodofHod
100 bullocks that were sacrifice when the 2nd Beis Hamikdash was completed. (Ezra 6:16) -HodofHod
100 talents of silver the Ammon gave to King יוֹתָם. (Chronicles 1 27:5) -HodofHod
100 chariots that Dovid reserved from what he took from הֲדַדְעֶזֶר מֶלֶךְ-צוֹבָה . (Chronicles 1 18:4) -HodofHod
פַרְעֹה נְכֹה fined Israel 100 talents of silver during the reign of יְהוֹאָחָז. (Kings 2 23:33) -HodofHod
Gematria of:
"לכן" -msh210
"מדה במדה" -msh210
"מדון" -msh210
"לך לך" -Gershon Gold
"מודים" -Gershon Gold
"המלכה" -Gershon Gold
"כף" -Gershon Gold
"פך" -Gershon Gold
"על"
"סם"
"ימים"
"כלים"
"בן חיל"
"יהועדה"
"ימלך"
"סכך"
"מס"
"ממך"
"מיכל"
"מלכי"
"סלי"
"מכם"
"עודך"
"המימה"
"מימי"
"נלך"
"ילין"
"טמאים"
"יגאלנו"
"ובחסדך"
"ויחלמו"
"גביעיה"
"ייסך"
"מני"
"בלחמך"
"ליני"
"כלכל"
"חצב"
"וילדים"
"יפי"
"בכוכבים"
Answers in this answer.
(Ok, I know the gematrias got a little out there, but you try coming up with 50 other references for 100!)
| https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/3027 |
judaism | Difference between men and women regarding drinking water before the day kidush | In Chukas Hanoshim of the Ben Ish Hai chapter 43 (below) he writes that women cannot drink anything on Shabbos morning until kidush, but men can drink water before shachris.
What might be his source/reasoning?
Does anyone argue with his decision?
| VQAonline_00022911.png | The Ben Ish Chai explains his own position in Year 2 Parashat Bereishit #18
קידוש הלילה אינו תלוי בתפלת ערבית, שאם ירצה לקבל שבת מבעוד יום ולקדש ולאכול ולהתפלל ערבית בלילה, רשאי, ורק צריך שיתחיל לאכול חצי שעה קודם זמן קריאת-שמע; אבל קידוש היום תלוי בתפלה, דכל זמן שלא התפלל שחרית, לא חל עליו חובת קידוש; ולכן, ביום שבת בבוקר יוכל לשתות מים קודם תפלה, מפני שכיון שלא התפלל, לא חל עליו חובת קידוש. וכל זה הוא באנשים דחל עליהם חיוב תפלה בבוקר אחר עמוד השחר, אבל הנשים, משעלה עמוד השחר חל עליהם חובת קידוש, ואסורין לשתות מים קודם קידוש; מפני דיש אומרים: הנשים קיימי אדינא דאורייתא, שאין להם נוסח קבוע ולא זמן קבוע לתפילה, ובפעם אחד ביום שיאמרו נוסח תפילה, יצאו ידי חובה, ואם כן לדידהו, אין הקידוש תלוי בתפילה, ולפיכך, משעלה עמוד השחר אסורין לטעום מים קודם קידוש, וכמ"ש הרב "חסד לאברהם" בתשובה, בא"ח, סי' וא"ו; יע"ש.
...women from dawn are obligated in Kiddush, and are [hence] forbidden to drink water before Kiddush, for there are those who say that women follow the biblical rule of having no fixed text or times for prayer, and in one time in the day when they say a prayer they fulfill their obligation, and if so for them Kiddush is not dependent on prayer, and therefore from dawn they are prohibited to taste water before Kiddush... (my translation of the part I italicized)
| https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/67090 |
judaism | (How) Are these aravos kosher? | According to my understanding of Shulchan Aruch OC 647:1, the edges of the leaves of the aravos should not have serrated edges, but should rather be smooth:
עַרְבֵי נַחַל הָאָמוּר בַּתּוֹרָה [...] וּפִיו חָלָק
(See also Mishna Berura there, note 1, which seems to support my reading of the Mechaber)
When I went to the daled minim shuk tonight, all the aravos I saw appeared to have serrated edges, unlike the ones I'm used to from America (from my own backyard). The ones pictured below claim to be under the supervision of the Badatz Edah HaChareidis (you can see part of the logo, in reverse, in the picture). I also noticed some sets with the name of Rav Nissim Karelitz on them. (I don't have a picture of American aravos with me, at the moment)
Is this a problem with the aravos? If they are, indeed, kosher for use, how should the above-cited portion of Shulchan Aruch be understood?
| VQAonline_00022909.png | Small serations are kosher, large ones are not. See Halachipedia's entry on aravos.
| https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/64186 |
judaism | Which shita are those wearing extra long tallit katan following? | Some rabbonim are wearing really long and large talith katan. For example Rav Shmuel Auerbach shlita (picture below).
Rav Elyashiv ztl used to wear a very long one too.
Which shita are they following?
This is quite a bit longer than Chazon Ish shiur; I wonder if perhaps it has something to do with the Gra, as I read that he requires the talith katan to go down to the knees. (See note 10 here.)
| VQAonline_00022883.png | The answer is like you said that it is the opinion of the Gr"a. It is quoted from Rabbi Chaim of Volozhin that the Gr"a held any smaller sized Talis Katan to be Hotzaah on Shabbos. Reb Menashe Klein (Mishneh Halakhot) and Rav Moshe Sternbuch in Halichos Hagr"a pg. 38 explain that the opinion is based on the fact that the Torah only required a garment that is of size one will use it to go into a marketplace. Therefore they explain that in the time of the Gr"a they only wore long garments, so only with a long garment one fulfils tzitzis. However, in our time that it is the norm to where short jackets even the Gr"a will hold you fulfil the mitzvah.
Also Rabbi Sternbuch brings that Rav Moshe Feinstein held that it is impossible for the Gr"a to have said such a thing and he held it was the mistake of a scribe and one does not need to be concerned for this opinion.
Obviously the above is an answer to our minhag, however it would appear that the Rabbonim who where these tzitzis do so only as a Chumra.
| https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/30224 |
judaism | Who is this (Haredi) Rabbi? | Who is this Rabbi?
This is a still taken from the beginning of a documentary on Haredi jews in Jerusalem: The Anti-zionist Jews of Jerusalem
I am curious to learn who this Rabbi is, why he is dressed this way and what kind of festivity we are witnessing here?
| VQAonline_00022890.png | He is the Kaliver Rebbe.
[Rabbi] Menachem Mendel Taub (born 1923) is the Rebbe of the Kaliv Hasidic dynasty. Born in Transylvania in 1923, he is seventh in a direct paternal line to the founder of the dynasty, Rabbi Yitzchak Izak of Kaliv, a disciple of the Rebbe Reb Elimelech of Lizhensk.
An extremely talented Rabbi who recently moved his headquarters from Bnei Braq to Jerusalem. He speaks quite a few languages, and as a survivor of Auschwitz, he regularly speaks passionately about the Holocaust and Jewish unity. As a twin, Dr Mengele experimented on him and his sister (who didn't survive).
As a Chassidic Rebbe, he regularly conducts tischen where his Chassidim will join him for his meal. This particular picture is likely on Tu B'Shvat when Rebbes are known to distribute fruit.
And, video caption aside, he is NOT anti-Zionist!
UPDATE: The Kaliver Rebbe passed away in Jerusalem, on Nisan 23, 5779 [April 28, 2019] (aged 95–96).
| https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/43749 |
judaism | KORC - Kosher Symbol | I was in Costco today and saw chopped romaine lettuce with the KORC symbol. I was wondering if anyone knows if this symbol is accepted by the OU or other large Kashrus organizations.
| VQAonline_00022899.png | The Atlanta Kashrus Agency does not recommend the KORC.
The AKC does not recommend the KORC certification. Lettuce products
with this certification have been found to have have insects and
require additional washing and checking.
| https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/53795 |
judaism | The Seder Plate according to the Rama | The most common Seder plate orders I have seen are the Rama, the Gra, and the Ari.
But when looking at just the Rama's Seder Plate, different places show even that differently.
According to the Star K
But I have also seen in other places/web-sites/Haggadot that there are only five items on the Rama's Seder plate; often Salt Water is omitted and/or the three Matzos are omitted.
Why is there not one consistent view of what the Rama's Seder Plate looks like?
| VQAonline_00022903.png | The Rema is really very clear - there are six items on the seder plate plus the matzot. I've never seen anyone who tried to claim otherwise, but if you're seeing other descriptions in modern haggadot, my feeling is that the basic factor at play here is modern revisionism. With regard to leaving out the salt water, most of the other minhagim (Gra, Ari zl, etc) don't have salt water on the seder plate. Since most people do not follow the Rema's order for the seder plate, it's simply unusual. The only people I know of who have tried to keep the Rema's order are the Yekkes (German Jews). Since most people nowadays don't have the salt water on the seder plate, the authors of contemporary haggadot feel comfortable leaving it off "because it's not done" even if they're ignoring what the Rema actually said. Their goal is to give options that work for today's generation. As minhagim change, they print what they expect their audience to want.
As for the matzot - it's a similar story. There isn't room on the modern seder plate for today's modern sized matzot (I have no idea what size matzot the Rema had - they may have been a different size back then). Therefore, people leave it off. Even the German Jews who tried to keep the Rema's arrangement started making multi-layer seder plates in order to keep the matzot on the seder plate technically, but not have them interfere with the other items. Since it's just not done anymore, many authors feel comfortable providing something which is more usable (in their mind) even if it's not technically accurate.
| https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/56602 |
korean | Korean cosmetic-sample - what is it? | dear ones,
I got this little cosmetic-sample, and have problem to translate it... What is it?
Can somebody help me, please?
Best regards, xoxo: Sophie
| VQAonline_00023008.png | It is product by brand calls "TonyMoly" and it is: Floria Brightening Foam Cleanser
(Grapefruit extract to create clear and bright skin.
)
Link to read about product (choose the Grapefruit one to more information...)
BTW you can translate image here: https://translate.yandex.com/ocr
| https://korean.stackexchange.com/questions/5643 |
korean | What does this notification mean? | My Android phone from Korea has run into some serious software issues and is now flashing the notification below:
My limited Korean knowledge cannot understand what this means, except that the title reads 'Android upgrade has stopped' or so. I'd really appreciate if someone can help me by explaining the meaning.
Thanks in advance.
| VQAonline_00022995.png | Android is in the process of upgrading. (중 means "in the middle")
You have 139 apps (9 are being optimized), so it may take some time. Please don't let your phone run out of battery (charge).
| https://korean.stackexchange.com/questions/3071 |
korean | Is "올림픽 겨울 게임" a correct/natural way to say "Winter Olympics"? |
I noticed some of the BBC's coverage of the Winter Olympics is calling them "올림픽 겨울 게임".
A Korean friend remarked that this sounded a bit awkward, and that 동계올림픽 was more normal, as per the title of the official site: 평창동계올림픽.
Nevertheless, could "올림픽 겨울 게임" be considered correct? Or is it a mistake arising from literally translating "Olympic Winter Games" word-by-word?
| VQAonline_00022997.png | Your friend is right.
Korean call "The Winter Olympics", "동계 올림픽".
(동계 means 'winter(동) season(계)').
I think '올림픽 겨울 게임' is just translated by word-by-word.
| https://korean.stackexchange.com/questions/3288 |
korean | Etymology of Native Korean Numbers and Related Words | So I collected some native Korean numbers and their old forms into a few columns. The last two are words specifically for days.
The Roots column is what I observe to be common across the row, not something I know for a fact.
The dictionaries I consulted show the old forms, but do not mention etymological information earlier than that. I want to know if there have been any academic insights into the formation of these words.
| VQAonline_00022999.png | AFAIK, this is as far back as you can go. Korean is linguistically regarded as a language isolate, which has no sister languages anywhere else in the world. The comparative method, which is used for reconstructing older forms of languages, does not work for Korean.
The forms you find in the 옛한글 columns are the oldest attested forms of the words (from the 15th century). There are no older forms of those words that has been discovered, and they likely will never be.
| https://korean.stackexchange.com/questions/3356 |
korean | Is there any rule for the pronunciation of 닫히다 as tachida not tathida? | Is there any rule for the pronunciation of 닫히다 as tachida not tathida as in the picture below?
| VQAonline_00022991.png | This is called 구개음화 (palatalization), and it's one of several assimilation rules in Korean. It occurs when ㄷ or ㅌ is in the 받침, and is followed by a syllable beginning with 이:
같- + 이 = 같이 [가치]
굳- + 이 = 굳이 [구지]
In the example you've given, the ㄷ + ㅎ combination produce [ㅌ] sound, but since it is followed by the 이 sound, palatalization occurs, resulting in [치] pronunciation.
(Note that this rule only applies when the ㄷ/ㅌ is in the 받침 (and thus ending the morpheme). Historically, this sound change occurred across the board, but where it occurred in the middle of the word, the orthography was updated:
텬디 -> 천지
Now, exceptions like 디디다 remain; this should be pronounced as [디디다], without palatalization, because the ㄷ is not in the 받침).
| https://korean.stackexchange.com/questions/2479 |
korean | What is ~없어서는, how is it used? | This sentence seemes to say the opposite of what it "should" mean.
찬양과 예배의 삶은 신앙인들에게 없어서는 하나님과의 관계이자 생명 그 자체이다
Just to clarify, I'm not confused (hopefully) on these items:
찬양과 예배의 삶은 = a life of praising and worshiping
신앙인들에게 = to those that have a walk of faith
하나님과의 관계이자 생명 = both life and a relationship with God
자체이다 = (the very thing) itself
I've heard 없어서는 안돼 like it's not okay for something to be absent, but I'm thrown by the position of 없어서는 in this sentence.
It seems to say that a life of praise and worship, if absent, are a relationship with God and life itself - which obviously must be wrong.
When placed into Google translate, it comes out just a little too well. Perhaps the engine either just got lucky, or it didn't process the ~없어서는
Clarification and other examples of 없어서는 would be fruitful.
| VQAonline_00022996.png | I'm pretty sure 없어서는 is a typo of 있어서는.
~에(게) 있어서는 is a common idiom meaning "when it comes to ..." or "to ..." as in "그들에게 있어서는 매우 중요한 문제였다 (To them, it was a very important matter)".
| https://korean.stackexchange.com/questions/3178 |
korean | What's the correct representation of letter "j" in korean? | I started learning korean and the book shows c/j as , while in other online resources I found it as ㅈ
Is this the same, only the first is handwritten version and the second is print version?
I found other letters (for eg. "h") that are also written differently.
Please explain this.
| VQAonline_00022990.png | Those two letters are the same letter - they just look different in different fonts. Also, in some fonts, like 바탕체 you can see both forms - the first (ㅈ) when it's in the 받침 (bottom of the syllable) and the second when it's in the top of the syllable.
It is usually transliterated as j - that's how the Revised Romanization handles it, but the older McCune–Reischauer transliterates it as 'ch', and I've seen linguistics papers that transliterate it as just 'c'.
| https://korean.stackexchange.com/questions/2449 |
latin | Translation needed for 130 years old church document |
I found this record of my great grandfather in a local church in Malaysia. Today, nobody use Latin anymore in this country. I should be much grateful if someone can help my family translating this document so that we can trace our root. My great grandfather's name on the certificate is Lam Fuk On.
| VQAonline_00023066.png | It's a record of a baptism, stating:
the date of the event (17 of April of 1887), which was four days after the baby was born
the minister officiating the ceremony (Father F.P. Sorin, a French missionary priest, buried at St. Anne's Church, just a few miles away from the church where the baptism took place) (more info about the priest here)
the place (the extinct Church of the Sacred Heart of Jesus, in Machang Bubok)
the name of the parents
the Christian name given to the baby (Justinus, or Justin, in English)
the name of the godparents (fifth line)
| https://latin.stackexchange.com/questions/9180 |
latin | Understanding entries in Latin dictionary |
I started learning Latin yesterday by myself using the Wheelock's Latin textbook
My question was why are there 4 variations given of a word but only one translated meaning? What do these words mean?
| VQAonline_00023068.png | These are called the principal parts of the verb. They're the same verb, but in different forms.
Basically, one form isn't enough to know how to use a verb properly. Imagine if you didn't know English, and looked up the verb give in a dictionary. From that one form, how would you know the past tense? You'd probably guess *gived, but that would be wrong. How are you supposed to know it's actually gave?
So English verbs have three principal parts: if you look up give in a dictionary for English-learners, it'll list these parts as give, gave, given. From these three forms, you can create all the other forms you might need: he will give, I have given, you are giving, and so on.
Latin has these same three principal parts: dare means "give", dedī means "gave", and datum means "given". But there's a slight oddity in Latin that means you need one extra form as well: dō specifically means "I give", because that one sometimes looks different from what you'd expect. So those are the four forms every dictionary will list.
(P.S. Sometimes verbs won't have all these forms; you'll see some verbs listed with only three, or some with only two. This generally means certain forms are unattested: they've never been seen "in the wild", and are assumed not to exist. For example, meminī, meminisse, "remember", only appears in the past tense. A good dictionary will also explain which forms are missing and how to work around that.)
| https://latin.stackexchange.com/questions/9314 |
latin | ATM in Vatican City: "Inserito scidulam quaeso ut faciundam cognoscas rationem" | The automated teller machines in Vatican City show this screen when awaiting a card:
Could someone, quaeso, break this down word by word? There are a number of things here that I find puzzling or surprising:
Why future imperative for inserito? I understand the future imperative to mainly be for things to do from now on, not for something to do right now.
Does quaeso here function like English "please"? But doesn't it anthropomorphize the machine, literally meaning "I ask"? Or has quaeso taken on a non-anthropomorphizing adverbial meaning in contemporary Latin as a polite softener for when a machine addresses a human in the imperative mood?
Does ratio faciunda mean bank account to operate on? Calculation to be performed? Something else?
Why is cognoscas in the 2nd person? I am to insert my card so that I know which bank account to use? (Maybe the answer to this question explains the previous one.)
Why does the word order emphasize rationem instead of placing cognoscas at the end of the clause?
| VQAonline_00023100.png | When I first saw this text it too struck me as unclear and unnatural. The first problem has since been resolved, the second however remains. Another reply mentions Foster himself translating it as 'Insert your card--scidulam--so you can access the operations allowed.' - that's certainly not an exact rendering of what the Latin says, which is instead:
"I kindly ask that you then insert your card in order to learn what approach needs to be done."
From this follow my observations that will simultaneously try to answer the questions:
inseritō: the future imperative is the standard form of instruction in manuals; however, I don't think it's appropriate in an immediate address:
"The present imperative differs from the future imperative in -to, the semantic value of which is, certainly in Early Latin comedy and in legal texts, ‘non-immediate realization of the action involved’. When the present and future imperatives
co-occur, the difference in immediacy becomes apparent..." (Pinkster 2015: 515)
scidula: σχίδα~η seems to be a variant of σχέδη already in Greek; sc(h)eda looks to be reflected by Italian sc/ɛ/da (no diphthong would mean a native Tuscan survival).
quaesō: I think it does anthrophomorphize the machine, and this is normal - we digital moderns anthropomorphize them all the time, and in Latin this is taken to eleven and one of the most common sources of neologisms. In this case, however, quaesō might be a little too friendly-conversational (Cicero in his letters reserves it for the most personal requests) and rogō might have been more appropriate - or in fact the even more impassionate rogāmus.
I disagree that if an English translation does not, this means that the original doesn't either - in many cultures animal names are employed metaphorically to refer to certain objectionable human qualities, like "an ass=donkey" for dim-witted and obstinate people, and the fact that in English "ass" refers to the buttocks while "donkey" isn't used as an insult bears no relation to the fact that calling someone осёл in Russian is clearly zoomorphising, as is incidentally су́ка "bitch" - less so in English.
ratiō faciunda uses ratiō in the sense "logical method, approach, way of proceding", but the use of facere seems unnatural to me, which I illustrate in the translation "to do an approach". I've found no instances of this collocation. This is the main reason the sentence is difficult to understand - since this meaning of the noun that exhibits a great variety of idiomatic uses doesn't work with a verb whose meaning is itself extremely bleached, and there's no clue as to what other meaning could have been intended.
I don't think it can be "transaction", because the ATM has no business telling the user which monetary transaction they need to perform - it's the other way around.
notice -und- instead of the more common -end- – their distribution was determined partly stylistically and partly word-by-word, and for facere in official contexts this form was indeed preferred, although this is not reflected by modern editions.
cōgnōscās is simply "to get to know some information", which is it's primary meaning. It promises to tell you how to proceed next.
The word order is the default one after a fronted faciundam, at least in written use. It exhibits what's commonly known in relation to Latin as 'hyperbaton' - a discontinuous noun phrase. In proper syntacticianese this is called 'movement', and in the case of leftwards movement 'fronting'. Here the underlying word order before fronting is cōgnōscās ratiōnem faciundam, while its presence adds a certain amount of poetic flavour.
I suppose the most unmarked word order is ratiōnem faciundam cōgnōscās, with phrasal stress on the second word - the fronting of one member of the noun phrase is marked already, while faciundam ratiōnem cōgnōscās is doubly so and places stress on ratiōnem - or can be an instance of right-movement of cōgnōscās, thus delaying, suspending it (accompanied by a suspended intonation and possibly a pause).
My own rendering of 'Please insert your card to receive further instructions' would be:
Insere schedulam, rogāmus, ut agendī ratiōnem accipiās.
Notice the genitive nd-noun ("gerund") instead of the nominative nd-adjective ("gerundive") - this might be what Foster was going for, but he confused the two verbs and consequently the two constructions. Paradoxically enough I feel that this is the least marked word order in this case, since agendī ratiō is a single, quasi-compound noun phrase, quite regularly so when it comes to generic-reference objective genitive expressions - indeed, (Spevak 2010: 99 & 182) concurs that "genitives with generic referents [...] are often pre-nominal" and "objective genitives coming last are semantically prominent".
As for translating 'so you can access the operations allowed', I think I'd be stretching the idiomatic resources of Latin and/or my knowledge of its financial jargon, but I think this would be sufficiently clear:
...ut certior fīās quae ratiōnēs aut negōtia cūrārī possint.
Refs:
Pinkster H. (2015). The Oxford Latin Syntax
Spevak O. (2010). The Noun Phrase in Classical Latin Prose
| https://latin.stackexchange.com/questions/15786 |
latin | Struggling to translate baptism record | Researching the baptism record of a relative dating from the early 1800’s where Catholic Priests used Latin in documenting the event. I apologize that I am a novice and hope its OK to post, but I have taken lots of time but can’t seem to figure out two words and their meaning (see attached).
I believe their naming or describing family relatives or close neighbors or friends??? Please let me know oif the attached is clear or if need additional info. Thank you for your consideration.
PS Tried to attach full page but it exceeds size limit and if I shrink then resolution will eb an issue. Let me know if you want to see the full page and I can send / or post seperately.
Thank you all for the input, you helped me break a mental block. After your suggestions, I researched further and found another book which had overlapping baptismal events / dates, strange but true. The events were same basic date etc but the name was "Snerigen". I also found the Adam Schmith entry. Thank you again very much.
| VQAonline_00023115.png | I would read those words as Samuelis Snerigen. I think the first name is clear enough that it requires no explanation, the genitive "of Samuel".
The second letter of Snerigen does not look like an r nor a u, because this scribe seems to write those differently in a consistent way (see Martii in the top left, and fuit in the top centre. There is nothing else it could be but an n.
The third letter could perhaps be a c, but it looks fatter than his other c's. It looks similar to his neater e's. Since Snc- is not possible, it must be an e.
The fourth letter clearly resembles his other r's.
The fifth letter must be an i, because it is a single stroke. In addition, while the scribe does not dot all i's, there is a dot here, which arguably must belong to this stroke.
The seventh letter looks like a g, cf. the g in Legitima in the second line.
The eighth letter looks the same as the e earlier in this word.
The final letter could be an r in other manuscripts, but this author never seems to use that r. Besides, I think that r is mainly used in older manuscripts than this, or in Germany, perhaps. And the scribe consistently uses a different r. It does resemble the n in *Susceperunt in the line before last, and it has the typical little ending horizontal stroke for a final n or m, so it must be an n.
When you Google, the surname Snerigen seems to exist in the 19th century in America..
P.S. As Dbmag9 says, the word you suggested could be Adam is Mariae, "of Maria" (genitive case).
| https://latin.stackexchange.com/questions/17557 |
latin | What's the translation of this Medieval document? | This is a page taken from a medieval breviary from 13th century Italy
Found this document at The Antiquarium in Houston. Would like to know what it is describing. Translations as well as paraphrases will be equally appreciated.
| VQAonline_00023061.png | Here is a transcription starting from the first initial with only a few lacunae. I've mostly filled in the abbreviations and added punctuation, except when I didn't.
Cumque Anolinus huiuscemodi litteras accepisset, palam recitavit, sibique Nazarium offerri iussit. Dixitque ad eum, "Iussit inclitus imperator incidi cervices tuas pariter et puerorum Gervasii et Prothasii et Celsi pueri." Nazarius respondit, "Magnus Deus et magna opera eius qui nos absolvi iam iubet."
R/ Isti sunt incliti martyres Christi Gervasius et Prothasius, qui monita Dei ardentes, spernendo mundum secuti sunt domini nostri Iesu Christi pia vestigia.
V/ Nichil terrenum, nichil carnale concupiscentes in Mediolanensi urbe in Dei servitio perdurantes manserunt. Secuti [etc.]
?: Iusti autem in perpetuum vivent et apud Dominum est merces eorum.
[up to the initial, this next line is unclear and contains many technical abbreviations. I can only make out "Vos servi? Domini." The red line starts with "secundum." It continues:]
In illo tempore, egrediente Iesu de templo, ait illi unus de discipulis suis, "Magister, aspice quales lapides et quales structurae [column break] templi..." et rel[iqua]. (h/t Ben)
Iuxta historiam manifestus est sensus quia quadragesimo secundo anno
post passionem Domini sub Vaspasiano et Tito Rommanorum principibus, ita funditus est ipsa civitas eversa cum templo suo magnificentissimo ut solo coaequaretur.
R/ Quae Beato Ambrosio revelata atque ab eodem reperta in ecclesia quam ipse proprio fundavit studio ostensis miraculis sunt sepulta. Quae domini, etc.
Quod etiam modo ambitus murorum qui ipsum locum circumdat, testatur eum locum Calvariae ubi Dominus extra passus est, et infra muros amplectitur.
R/ Beatissimo Ambrosio Mediolanensi episcopo per visum apparuit quo loco laterent corpora Gervasiii et Prothasii. At ubi agnitio sancti sacerdotis divina ostensione condonavit, invenit sanctos martyres in profundo terrae sicut the[saurum], etc.
Some notes:
I'm not an expert in thirteenth century Medieval liturgy, but based on what I know of more recent centuries, this looks to be like a part of the office for the feast day of Sts. Protasius and Gervasius. It includes the usual variation between verses, responses, and readings, building on a general theme.
Some of the narrative sections are taken, either word-for-word or in paraphrase, from the Analecta Bollandiana.
One strange part is that it launches into a Gospel before abruptly transitioning (starting with "iuxta historiam") to Jerome's Rabanus Maurus's (thanks, luchonacho!) commentary on that Gospel. I'm not sure why this is done.
| https://latin.stackexchange.com/questions/6931 |
latin | What is the meaning of the idiom "Discedere ab amicis" | I found this in a Latin-English dictionary. Is the specific meaning known? The English translation does not give me any specifics in terms of the meaning. I was thinking it could mean self-isolation or even suicide.
| VQAonline_00023123.png | It means pretty much literally that: to abandon one's friends, to break off a friendship, either permanently or temporarily. Cicero uses it a few times in De Amicitia (12.42, 20.75):
…si in eius modi amicitias ignari casu aliquo inciderint, ne existiment ita se alligatos, ut ab amicis in magna aliqua re publica peccantibus non discedant…
If unknowing people fall by some happenstance into friendships of this sort, they must not consider themselves to be so constrained that they cannot separate themselves from friends who are causing problems in important government affairs…
Et saepe incidunt magnae res, ut discedendum sit ab amicis; quas qui impedire volt, quod desiderium non facile ferat…
And often important matters come up where one must be separated from their friends; someone who wants to obstruct these matters because they cannot easily bear this grief…[is weak-willed and also a bad friend]
I don't think it was a special idiom, though, because Cicero uses plenty of synonyms too. When talking about ending friendships in the next paragraph (21), he uses demittere amicitiam instead.
| https://latin.stackexchange.com/questions/18777 |
latin | What does 'ANGLORUM REGIS QUI COR LEONIS DICTUS' mean? | In the cathedral of Rouen I visited the grave of Richard I the Lionheart. It has an inscription:
ANGLORVM REGIS QVI COR LEONIS DICTVS
So what is the best translation?
King of England, who ruled with a lion heart?
English King, who ruled with a lion heart?
Maybe something else?
| VQAonline_00023049.png | "Here is interred the heart of Richard, King of the English, called Lionheart. Died in the year 1199."
| https://latin.stackexchange.com/questions/5158 |
law | Am I responsible for this car accident? | It is an accident that nearly occurred. It is in UK; so cars go on the left.
I was standing at a junction, and there was busy traffic on my right. Occasionally, there are cars turning left, and I was looking for a gap to walk across. Then there is Taxi coming up on my right; it did not signal left, so I thought it was going straight. So I walk across, and the car turned left nearly hitting me. The driver was swearing at me after this near accident.
So my question is: if the driver did hit me, who is responsible for this accident?
Appreciate any suggestion.
Edit: I was not on a pedestrian passing, but in my town, people always go across like that. I think the taxi was driving at about 15 miles. I was also walking quickly and may not have allowed the driver to response. When I started to cross, the taxi is already ahead of me.
Supplement:
The junction
| VQAonline_00023161.png | From Rule 170 of the Highway Code:
watch out for pedestrians crossing a road into which you are turning. If they have started to cross they have priority, so give way
If this was indeed the case, then it suggests that the OP had right of way, and the driver was at fault. In any case, the driver should have indicated before turning.
| https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/18197 |
law | How much street space can restaurants occupy? | In Paris, France, what define how much street space can a restaurant occupy?
| VQAonline_00023130.png | According to the document Reglement des etalages et terrasses, page 15, such installations may not exceed 50% of the usable area of the sidewalk, and must leave a contiguous area of at least 1.6 meters in width for pedestrian traffic:
Les installations peuvent être autorisées, soit d’un seul tenant, soit scindées, sans pouvoir excéder 50% de la largeur utile du trottoir. Une zone contiguë d’au moins 1,60 mètre de largeur doit être réservée à la circulation des piétons.
If you are interested in looking directly at the laws concerned, these can be found at the beginning of the same document:
Les dispositions du présent règlement sont établies en application
des articles L.2122-1 à L.2122-3 du code général de la Propriété des personnes publiques, L.2512-13, L.2512-14 et L.2213-6 du code général des Collectivités territoriales et de l’article L.113-2 du code de la Voirie routière.
Roughly translated, that means that the rules described in the present document are established by application of the articles L.2122-1 through L.2122-3 of the "general code of property of public persons", L.2512-13, L.2512-14 and L.2213-6 of the "general code of territorial collectivities" and of article L.113-2 of the highway code.
More links:
L.2122-1
L.2122-2
L.2122-3
L.2512-13
L.2512-14
L.2213-6
L.113-2
| https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/867 |
law | How are US grand juries instructed not to 'indict ham sandwiches' if there is no judge or opposing counsel? | In the May 26, 2021 video How a NY special grand jury could impact Donald Trump CNN’s senior legal analyst and former federal prosecutor Elie Honig mentions the following in a background piece outlining the basics of a US Special Grand Jury. After about 01:17 they say:
It is a one-sided presentation; it’s only the prosecutor, the grand jurors, and a court reporter. There’s no judge, there’s no defense lawyer. So it is extremely one-sided; you hear this expression ‘the grand jury would indict a ham sandwich’ there’s some truth to that; it’s not an adversarial process like you’d have at trial.
and the origin of the 'ham sandwich' reference is mentioned in Wikipedia's Grand Juries in the United States; Rubber Stamp for the Prosecution:
[...]Grand jurors also often lack the ability and knowledge to judge sophisticated cases and complicated federal laws. This puts them at the mercy of very well trained and experienced federal prosecutors. Grand jurors often hear only the prosecutor's side of the case and are usually persuaded by them. Grand juries almost always indict people on the prosecutor's recommendation. An unnamed Rochester defense lawyer was quoted in a 1979 newspaper article claiming that a prosecutor could get a grand jury to "indict a ham sandwich", a saying subsequently repeated by the chief judge of New York State's highest court, Sol Wachtler. And William J. Campbell, a former federal district judge in Chicago, noted: "[T]oday, the grand jury is the total captive of the prosecutor who, if he is candid, will concede that he can indict anybody, at any time, for almost anything, before any grand jury." (references therein)
Question: With only prosecutor(s) and a court reporter, are jurors at all instructed to not simply "rubber stamp" the prosecution's desire to indict? Are the terms and concepts necessary for them to function as a jury (e.g. "preponderance of evidence") explained to them? If so, by who? Is there a standard "script" or talking points for such instruction?
--
| VQAonline_00023242.png |
With only prosecutor(s) and a court reporter, are jurors at all
instructed to not simply "rubber stamp" the prosecution's desire to
indict?
Not really. They are told their job and the legal standards that they are required to act according to, however, and the federal judicial branch does have a short handbook for grand jurors.
Are the terms and concepts necessary for them to function as a jury
(e.g. "preponderance of evidence") explained to them?
Yes. But grand juries don't operate on a preponderance of the evidence standard. The sole evidentiary standard in a grand jury proceeding is the lower "probable cause" standard. Likewise, lots of evidence which would not be admissible in a criminal trial is admissible in a grand jury proceeding. The main kind of evidence not admissible in a grand jury proceeding is evidence which is "privileged" against court disclosure (e.g. attorney-client communications).
If so, by who?
The prosecutor and the handbook linked above.
Is there a standard "script" or talking points for such instruction?
Prosecuting attorney's offices in jurisdictions that usually use grand juries typically have a set of forms.
In federal practice, Federal Rule of Criminal Procedure 6 is the primary source of guidance, and the Justice Department (which handles all or virtually all federal criminal prosecutions) has detailed policies and procedures for handling grand jury practice (and a 405 page practice manual) that his a matter of public record. There is some case law on what the content of an indictment must look like and on the grand jury process.
Some state and local jurisdictions with routine use of grand juries probably have standard court forms for certain parts of grand jury process, and there may be some standard forms in local rules for some federal courts. But there isn't a national judicial branch sanctioned official set of court forms for grand juries in the federal criminal justice system.
The rather lax supervision of grand juries reflects the fact that they are a road bump in the criminal justice process with a pretty low threshold to meet that faces sterner tests later in the process:
Is there probable cause to support the charges requested by the
prosecutor against the named defendants?
About half of U.S. states allow prosecutors to do this without a grand jury approval, unilaterally.
Every grand jury indictment must either be consented to by the defense, or approved by the court following a trial with a much higher proof beyond a reasonable doubt standard, to result in a conviction resulting in the imposition of punishment.
A judge in a separate hearing determines if there will be pre-trial detention or bail conditions prior to the criminal trial.
| https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/65310 |
law | Creative commons license vs copyright, who wins? | There's an image of a pokeball (from Pokemon, which is owned by Nintendo) that I found online.
It has a creative commons license 3.0.
Could I sell this image without being sued by Nintendo? The creative commons license says I can sell it for commercial use, but I found articles online of Nintendo suing people for selling their stuff. So who owns this image? Am I safe from the law if I sell it?
| VQAonline_00023151.png | If the "Pokeball" image is copyrighted and/or a trademark of Nintendo/whoever makes the Pokemon games, then whoever put that image out there under CC 3.0 BY is in violation and can be sued and will probably lose, and you would be in violation and can be sued and will probably lose. Your penalty would almost certainly be less since your violation was "innocent", that is, you had no way of knowing that the "Pokeball" imagery was somebody's protected intellectual property.
...
Except you kind of maybe should know that, unless whoever made the Pokemon games (Nintendo or other) put the image out there and you can verify that, that maybe this license could be bogus and you should consult with who you imagine the owner of that IP may be or an impartial professional who could tell you for sure. I'm thinking if it were me I would do a little more research - and maybe get a paid opinion - if I was really thinking about using this for any but private purposes.
| https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/13499 |
law | Incident with another cyclist, repair costs too expensive | Past week I had a bike incident with another cyclist. The rider in front of me slowed down and when I looked back to confirm no one was behind, he stopped and I hit him. Totally my fault, and no one get hurt. Typical mistake.
I gave my phone number to the other person and ask him if he wants to go to a bike shop at the moment but he refuse because it was late for him. Anyway, he contact me the day after asking for 370 euros for the repairs. I consider this amount of money ridiculous since the damage is only in the gear drive that is twisted (not broken).
At the moment I had some shots of the damage and a video of the person riding after with no problem apparently.
My question is if I should ask the person to take the bike to a shop repair that I trust and get a new budget for this? Or even buy the parts and install it by myself.
This is in Spain and I am not covered by insurance for this incident.
The person is very reluctant to detail the repairing. I told that I accept the costs and the repair shop but I need a detailed invoice. Somehow the pictures I took are helpful to clarify how damaged it was.
This was between two Bicycles. As additional info, we were not riding together.
| VQAonline_00023216.png | Great job taking the photo at the time, it could end up saving you some money.
I can see an Acera rear derailleur(inexpensive), a seven speed freewheel (cheap), a rusty chain (poorly maintained), a bent derailleur hanger (possible damage) and a rear derailleur cable which is doing something slightly funny.
Focusing on the seven speed freewheel, we can tell that this is a budget bike. I would expect you could replace the whole bike for 370 euros. Labour charges will make up a large portion of a repair bill, but it does seem like an inflated price.
You absolutely must insist on transparency upfront from the bike owner. If they are not prepared to tell you what they want to spend your proposed 370 euros on, then I am confident they are trying to rip you off. If they tell you what the money will be spent on and you are struggling to decide if it is reasonable, please ask us about it with the updated info, before you pay any money at all.
Also seek some regional legal input into what your obligations and time frame need to be (we aren't lawyers!). If you meet your legal obligations and do so in a timely manner, then you are free to be as generous or not as you like in returning the bike to the condition it was in before the incident.
As for the original questions (sorry). I would suggest having the quote for the repairs approved by someone you trust in advance, yes perhaps a third party bike shop you trust. I would suggest not doing the repair work yourself. Even though that could be cheaper, you don't want any follow-ups from the other person. So if the repair is done at the other person's choice of repair shop, with your prior agreement about the cost and extent of the work, then they cannot follow up and ask you for more money after the fact.
| https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/50951 |
law | Why is PayPal blocking my account according to U.S. tax law, if I've a UK account only? | I've opened PayPal account for my business and in My Profile I've clearly selected the UK address. My phone is UK, my bank accounts are UK and the balance is shown in GBP. So this is very clear to PayPal that my account is UK based.
However I've received the following e-mail which says:
Your account access will remain limited until you add more information about your business.
Why do I need to add this information?
The Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA), a U.S. tax law, requires financial institutions like PayPal to collect additional information from customers when a new business account is opened. You need to add this information even if your business or your customers are not United States taxpayers or located in the United States. We collect this information for regulatory and compliance purposes.
By adding "more information" they mean to download U.S. form W-8BEN-E, fill it in completely and upload or fax it to PayPal, however I don't want to fill some U.S. form, simply because I'm not from the U.S and I don't want to share my confidential personal details with the foreign country. To clarify, my business doesn't have any clients from the US and my business is registered in the UK. And as an owner of the business I've never been to the U.S.
So my question is, why am I affected by a U.S. tax law? Do I really need to comply with U.S. tax law (having the business in the UK)?
The above quote from the e-mail says that I need to add this information even though my business isn't located in the U.S. However on the FATCA FAQ page (requires log-in) it says:
For accounts held outside the United States that belong to non-US persons, financial institutions such as PayPal must gather information from account holders providing that they are not US persons.
For me this is contradictory to the previous quote (because here they ask me to prove I'm not a U.S. person) so I'm confused as to what I should do.
In other words, can my UK business somehow ignore FATCA requirements or not? Currently I'm forced to comply to the country compliance act tax (by filling W-8BEN-E) where I've nothing to do with it, which doesn't make any sense.
| VQAonline_00023148.png | The reason that you are being asked to comply with a US law is because PayPal, a US company, is required to comply with US laws. If you do not comply, it is likely that they will be non-compliant and subject to sanctions.
For more background, FATCA reporting is used to identify businesses that a company does business with. In this scenario PayPal does business with you, 'Kenorb Inc', and so must prove to the regulatory agencies that you are not a US based company, hence the need for the W-8BENE.
In a similar way - people from other countries cannot simply ignore UK law when dealing with your business.
As for your quotes - they are not contradictory.
| https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/11070 |
law | How often do Davids fail to retain effective legal representation against Goliaths, in Private Law, even if David can pay? | I ask just about private (civil) law here, NOT criminal. David is the underdog layman, who needs a competent civil litigator against a powerhouse Goliath. Postulate that David can pay lawyers' fees and legal costs — rule this out as an issue. Postulate just good faith, skillful lawyers.
How likely will David fail to find — and be represented by — a skilled civil litigator — solely because Goliath is too powerful?
For example, Big Six (in Australia), Magic Circle (in U.K.), Seven Sisters (in Canada), White Shoe (in U.S.A.) law firms normally act for Goliath, like moneyed MultiNational Corporations. So they're conflicted from representing David.
A bad faith, wealthy Goliath can deliberately instruct or retain (Which is the correct term?) most — if not all — law firms in a jurisdiction. Then Goliath can intentionally conflict all these lawyers from representing David, and deny David cost-effective realistic legal representation. Do any laws outlaw this kind of Lawyer/Regulatory Capture?
This is a genuine worriment, especially for teeny jurisdictions like Hong Kong or Singapore. Is this worriment less likely in big countries high on the Rule of Law Index like Canada, UK?
In theory, David can try small town or upstate lawyers in the boondocks?!?!??! The problem is that in some areas of the law, there are only so many lawyers who have deep experience and are really good at what they do. If a client has a complex matter which requires a particular expertise, it is not unusual for the client to discover that the number of knowledgeable lawyers who are available to take on the matter may be quite limited. [...] Moreover, I will readily acknowledge that there are many situations where most, if not all, of the best lawyers who practice in the relevant area of law will be in a large firm.
My child in Hong Kong was such a David.
Unlike England that has Direct Access barristers, laymen cannot instruct barristers in Hong Kong. My kid couldn't find a solicitor on all of Hong Kong Island to represent him against Goliath! He asked at least 100 firms on Hong Kong Island — they all rejected him! He managed to find some solicitors in New Territories, but some appeared shoddy. Some didn't have websites. Some did not speak professional English. Their offices were run down.
Donald Best asseverated that
Over one hundred Ontario lawyers refused to represent me even as they acknowledged the veracity and power of my evidence. Many told me that while they personally sympathized with my situation facing injustice and corruption, they feared backlash and opprobrium from the profession if they harmed or even challenged the involved senior lawyers and their large Bay Street law firms.
| VQAonline_00023261.png |
How likely will David fail to find a skilled civil litigator to
represent David — solely because Goliath is too powerful?
It almost never happens in reasonably urbanized areas. It is an issue that usually comes up, if at all, in jurisdictions that are highly rural, for example, Wyoming, or the Northwest Territories of Canada, where the "Goliath" is usually some representative of the national government or a firm representing a national business, and there are extremely few lawyers, few of which have relevant practices.
Even then, it is almost always possible to get one's own out of town counsel, it is just more expensive than it would be if local counsel with appropriate skills could be found, and it takes more time since searching for counsel far from the place where the litigation will have to proceed is less convenient.
It isn't at all unusual for a tiny firm or sole practitioner who didn't attend a high prestige law school to take on a party represented by a large international law firm and win.
For example, I once represented a client in an attorney malpractice case against the largest law firm in the entire United States and secured a quite favorable settlement for them, working as co-counsel in a three lawyer firm, that has also won victories against other large firms.
As long as the client can afford to pay and the client has a case that isn't frivolous and isn't an absolute pain to deal with interpersonally (e.g. the client listens to the lawyer's advice), it is almost always possible to find counsel to represent an underdog against a large and powerful party.
This said, I can't necessarily speak to Hong Kong, which is in a very quirky and unique situation in a quite small market, in the post-Chinese takeover era, which is not the completely the usual open Western capitalist type legal system that it used to have. The Chinese Communist Party's pervasive influence over Hong Kong has changed the nature of legal practice there from the pre-takeover model to the kind of considerations that apply in a non-democratic, non-Western style legal regime even though the transition is not complete. The nature of contemporary legal practice in Hong Kong is totally unlike that nature of legal practice in Canada, the U.S., the U.K., France, Germany, Japan, Australia, New Zealand, or Italy, for example. It is more like that of a lawyer friend of mine who practiced law in Ivory Coast during a military coup regime.
The problem is that in some areas of the law, there are only so many
lawyers who have deep experience and are really good at what they do.
If a client has a complex matter which requires a particular
expertise,
While deep experience is desirable, it is rarely necessary in litigation work (for some kinds of specialized transactional work like oil and gas title work, or municipal bond underwriting, this is less true, but conflicts of interest aren't an issue in the same way). After all, all judges are basically generalists, so there are diminishing returns to having all that much more expertise than the judge. Any litigation lawyer has to boil down the law to arguments that the judge can handle.
There are economies of scale in litigation, but they max out somewhere in the vicinity of three or four lawyers and several paralegals. And, a lawyer supported by a couple of junior lawyers or a junior lawyer and a paralegal is usually more than adequate for a "David and Goliath" type case, although for a case between two "Goliaths" which is large and has voluminous facts or a class action case, one really needs to have more staff than that to be effective against a "Goliath". Scale mostly matters in cases which are evidence and discovery intensive (e.g. hundreds of thousand or millions of documents and dozens of witnesses are necessary to get the case resolved properly).
A bad faith, wealthy Goliath can deliberately instruct or retain
(Which is the correct term?) most — if not all — law firms in a
jurisdiction. Then Goliath can intentionally conflict all these
lawyers from representing David, and deny David cost-effective
realistic legal representation.
Possible, in theory, and conflicts of interest do happen, but I've never seen it happen for all firms in the market that can do the job in a quarter of a century outside very rural areas (like Wyoming). Big firms and small firms have different kinds of clients, so conflicts just aren't that common in this kind of scenario.
On the other hand, you have the weasel word "cost-effective" in there. Lawyers handling challenging litigation against a formidable opponent aren't cheap. In areas that I am familiar with, you are talking several lawyers at $250-$500 an hour each, for lots of hours, and big out of pocket charges for expert witness fees. It does cost a lot of money to fight a fight like that. But, it isn't because there aren't lawyers available to do it.
Donald Best asseverates that Over one hundred Ontario lawyers refused
to represent me even as they acknowledged the veracity and power of my
evidence. Many told me that while they personally sympathized with my
situation facing injustice and corruption, they feared backlash and
opprobrium from the profession if they harmed or even challenged the
involved senior lawyers and their large Bay Street law firms.
With due respect, Mr. Best is wrong. If a hundred lawyers refuse to represent you, it is because (1) your case is difficult or impossible to prove given the available evidence and legal standards in play (even if you are legitimately aggrieved), (2) they don't think you can afford to do what needs to be done, (3) the case is winnable but the costs of litigating it don't justify the rewards available if you win (probably the mostly likely reason in the matter described), or (4) you're an asshole and they don't want to put up with you (the second most likely reason in the matter described). Often, even when the law provides for a remedy in a case, the cost-benefit ratio just isn't there and good lawyers refuse to take on cases where the client, for example, wants to spend $50,000 to litigate a $15,000 problem.
Of course, out of 100 lawyers, if one isn't very thoughtful in how one tries to locate them, perhaps 40-60 simply don't have a relevant practice or are too busy to take on new work. I routinely decline new cases (dozens of times a year, at least) from prospective clients seeking representation in areas outside what I do (e.g. criminal law), or because there is only one of me and I'm currently working flat out on other cases. Small law firms have much less capacity to stretch to take on new work when they are busy than big ones do.
| https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/82155 |
lifehacks | Stuck photos while inside an envelope | It seems the photos have been stuck to each other. I had kept them inside the envelope which was given when I purchased those photos. It's been about 5 months since I had last opened that envelope. And now today I need them and they are stuck to each other.
What can I do to separate them?
| VQAonline_00023345.png | If they are gelatin-emulsion based, as used in traditional photography (or some coated ink-jet papers), hold the back side of the pack over a steaming kettle and let the steam slowly loosen the rear-most photo, one at a time. Just set them aside to dry separately afterwards.
N.B. Ink jet photos might 'run' in water. Test this on one photo to see if it damages it.
| https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/14152 |
lifehacks | How to cool a car down quickly | My car is black and I live in Australia. When I go to buy groceries it gets unbearably hot inside the car (especially in summer).
Is there a quick way to cool down my car so that I don't have to blast the air-con or wait for 10-15 minutes?
| VQAonline_00023307.png | There are two hot things to deal with: SURFACES and AIR
AIR has pretty much one best solution, exchange the air. Opening one door can take a long time if you're just waiting passively for the air to covect out. You can actually see the hot air if you look on a hot day for the air shimmer or (even cooler) watch the shadow of the door you've opened. If you have passengers opening the passenger side the smart thing to do is coordinate opening your door before they get in and leave it open as they enter, this gives air time to enter from the windward size and exit from the leeward. You can turnover the air in a car in a few seconds with even slight wind this way and if you're sly about it the passenger may never know. I do this a lot. If it's just you getting into the car it's a little tricky to open opposing doors. One possibility is to have a door and sunroof open to get crossflow but if it's a power sunroof opening it can take too long and put strain on your battery. If you are alone and have no convenient sunroof then you may have to resort to the old "swing around a magazine" approach or some other inelegant way to move the air although since you're alone in this case nobody should see :)
SURFACES are harder to cool because they have both more thermal mass and lower thermal dissipation (air is an insulator but convection actually exchanges the air which increases cooling speed by factors of 100). My usual solution for surfaces is to pick a couple important ones and change the surface into something that doesn't gather or convey heat to the user as well. This is a good reason for wood steering wheels or certain types of steering wheel and seat covers. Choices all depend on your preferred looks and textures as well as which surfaces get hot enough to be worth fixing.
There are a lot of fine variations here (like maybe a small battery fan to move the air). I look forward to useful additions in the comments.
| https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/6849 |
lifehacks | How to stop a trashbin from stinking | Okay, so we have bin collection once a week. For clarity sake, this is what our bin looks like:
So basically, occasionally the bag wears out and we loosen it so that it gets thrown out when the garbage collection comes, leaving the bin empty. The bin continues to smell even when there isn't the bag (or rubbish) inside of it. It's even clean inside the bin, which ends up in me having to wash the bin out.
Are there any options to keep said bin "smelling nice" / "not stinking"? I'm thinking of a more permanent solution (removing the smell), not masking the smell. Would Baking Soda be the option of choice?
| VQAonline_00023295.png | Don't put food in the trash. Instead, flush down the toilet or use the disposal. Rinse out cans and containers before throwing in the trash.
Wash the bin out periodically. If you leave it sit, it will eventually air out, but it may help to wash out with a hose.
I would remove the big trash bag from the external bin. It serves only to prevent the bin from airing out. Do not throw anything into the bin that is not already in a trash bag or grocery bag. A bag in the bin itself is unnecessary.
When throwing small bags into the bin, insure they are tied.
Make sure to have the bin at the curb on time for weekly pick up.
I do not recommend baking soda or similar remedies. Once you stop whatever bad habits regarding the trash bin, putting an agent in the bin will not be necessary. Do things differently starting now and the smell will be gone in a few days.
| https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/5602 |
lifehacks | Is there a way to erase pencil without a standard eraser? | There are times when I am away from home with my sketchpad and I realize I do not have my eraser with me. Are there any quick tricks to erase pencil marks on a paper without ruining the paper, or smearing the other pencil marks?
I use a particular type of eraser known as a "kneaded eraser", not a generic pink pencil top eraser, or a handheld pencil eraser.
I have tried using a gently moistened corner of my shirt to try and "clean" the pencil mark off of the paper, but that just smudged the pencil, and ruined the paper. I have tried dried chewing gum I was done with, but that too just seemed to smudge the pencil mark. On one occasion I tried silly putty and though it worked o.k., there were still faint lines and it wasn't erased completely.
Is there something handy I could find that might help?
| VQAonline_00023272.png | You can use a rubber band. Rubber bands remove pencil matter as well as erasers do. You have to be careful what you erase and what rubber bands you use, though.
You may be able to use correction fluid (a.k.a. white out).
But as long as you have a rubber band you should be okay. Also, I have observed that many rubbery objects work for this task, just make sure they don't smear the paper before use.
How not to lose your eraser: Drill a hole through the top and hang it on a string around your neck. Alternatively, stick it the rings of your notebook or strap it to your pencil with a rubber band.
Additional Info
Getting pencils with erasers should eliminate this problem, though.
How to make an eraser
Yahoo
I lost my eraser..what else can I use? and How to not lose my eraser so often?(This link I found useless).
And some things I haven't tried:
Flip Flops and Dried Bread
What is a good replacement for an eraser that works?
From user Jane:
The side edge of a flip-flop (rubber sandal) makes a good eraser.
From user Krazy Koala:
Dry bread gets pencil marks off wallpaper and an rubber band has been
known to work.
| https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/422 |
lifehacks | How to remove burnt grease on an oven shelf? | I have a wire oven shelf (rack) which has some burned-on grease:
The shelf is covered with chrome so I cannot put it in my oven when going through the pyrolysis cycle (apparently there would be toxic fumes) and normal washing does not help.
I noticed that the stains can be scraped with a knife so I was wondering whether I could go ahead with a metal brush. I feel that this would endanger the chrome coating. I do not care that much about the coating itself, aesthetically-speaking, but rather for its protective and somehow anti-adhesive properties.
Is there a standard way to clean such shelves?
| VQAonline_00023355.png | The simplest, most effective way to clean the rack without damaging the chrome plating is probably commercial oven cleaner in a spray can. Follow the instructions on the can and you'll probably get a very satisfactory result.
Most any "hacky" equivalent to oven cleaner is too hazardous to recommend -- it would involve lye, which can blind you instantly or cause serious chemical burns on contact. These methods (oven cleaner or lye) work by converting the grease component of the grime on the rack to soap, which then dissolves in water. Oven cleaner (usually a spray foam), however, controls the lye it contains so as to be reasonably safe to use.
| https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/15689 |
lifehacks | How to remove whitener ink from the clothes? | I just used whitener for marking the box, but due to force pressing it burst opened from the back and spilled fully over my clothes. Is there any best way to remove the spilled whitener?
It's the whitener used to erase words and not like whitener used for clothes or any other
| VQAonline_00023351.png | Most products of that type, in my experience, are more like a form of paint than ink. That is, they're a latex based pigment carried in a water based solution, rather than a dye solution. Most will come off with soap and water and scrubbing, especially before they're fully dry. This obviously works best with durable clothing items; if you spilled this on a silk suit, take it to a professional, because you're more likely to completely destroy it than clean it, but if it's blue jeans, khaki, or similar sturdy stuff, get some soap, warm water, and a brush and scrub away.
| https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/14889 |
lifehacks | How to keep bread fresher for longer | How do you keep bread fresh (lasting to/beyond the actual expiration date quoted on the packaging) as the bread I purchase always goes stale/moldy within a couple of days of opening.
I've heard that freezing the bread is a viable alternative, but I'd like to steer clear of, that as I don't want to have to take the bread out of the freezer the night before to make a sandwich the next day because it needs to defrost, not to mention the fact that the bread will be soggy the next morning anyway.
I do try to keep it in its original packaging (as suggested in this article), yet it seems to go stale/moldy regardless of where or how it is stored.
Clarification
This is packaged bread that you can buy from the supermarket. I always buy sliced bread and it varies from white/wholemeal. The bread would look like this:
It could be the temperature, but I keep it in a bread bin and out of damp/moist places.
| VQAonline_00023297.png | It's all about location, location, location!
There are a couple of things that will aid the growth of mold and bacteria and it is best to try and prevent these conditions being met in order to prolong the freshness of the bread. The things that I can think of are:
Heat - Don't allow the bread to be in a warm / hot location, room temperature is fine.
Light - Try to keep bread in a dark place like in a bread bin or just in a cupboard away from both natural and artificial light.
Moisture - Keep the bread away from any moisture and try to prevent moisture getting onto the bread, again this can be done by using a bread bin or a cupboard with only dried goods such as pasta. Also always redo the packaging in order to keep any air and moisture out.
So if getting a bread bin is an option then I would suggest that, and suggest that it be kept away from windows to avoid any sunlight heating it up and turning it into a bread sauna. Do not store the bread in a fridge as this will only increase the speed at which it will go stale but it would prevent mold - not really a good compromise but that is down to you.
Refrigerating the bread speed up the crystallization of the starch molecules which is one of the main reasons for bread going stale and this happens much more quickly when just above freezing temperature as opposed to being at room temperature. See here for details. Also Sheldon in Big Bang Theory says it so it must be true.
As you've mentioned freezing helps a lot as it stops any mold full stop, you would have to thaw it but this can be done with a microwave in about 10 seconds or a toaster for a little bit longer (I'm not sure on the specific for that one but it isn't too long). You are correct in that the bread is slightly soggy once defrosted but if you are game for a toast sandwich then just leave it in the toaster to crisp up and it will give you a delicious crunchy sandwich!
If you fancy a change from white or 50/50 bread - try wholewheat bread, this takes a longer time to develop mold and bacteria (or at least it takes longer for you to notice it) and is also more healthy for you, but keep in mind you should still store the bread in a dark, dry place.
| https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/5610 |
linguistics | Influence of Polish and Czech on the phonology of German dialects | German has for more than 1000 years been in contact with West Slavic languages, notably Polish and Czech. This is highly likely to have led to borrowing or interference between these languages, in both directions. It seems that discussion of this is usually restricted to influence from German on Polish and Czech. For example, the Polish dialect spoken in the Poznań region is reported to be heavily influenced by German. There is also a great number of German loanwords in Polish, such as malować from G. malen (both to paint).
I'm interested in influence in the opposite direction, from Polish and/or Czech to German (standard or other dialects), particularly on pronunciation. There is a Euromosaic study alluding to some influence of Polish on Silesian and East Prussian dialects, but it doesn't give any details or sources.
Possible influence
The rounded vowels /y/ and /ø/ are realised as /i/ and /e/ in the Saxon dialect and used to be pronounced this way in Silesian and East Prussian dialects of German:
'Kühe' as 'Kihe', 'Süden' as 'Siden'
'Höhle' as 'Hehle'
This is, incidentally, also the way many learners of German with Polish as first language pronounce these vowels. These rounded vowels do not exist in Polish.
The Slavic influence on some German dialects might have occurred as early as the 10th c. as this is the time German eastward expansion into (not only) Slavic territory started. The relevant Wikipedia article states that old and new population frequently mixed, so there were many opportunities for contact between people.
The following Wikipedia map shows the time frame for different regions:
Q: Can anybody confirm Polish influence on (East) German dialects, in general and in particular for these vowels?
Influence of Polish on varieties of German spoken in the Ruhr region has been documented, but this influence was more restricted in time. There was Polish migration to the Ruhr region in western Germany in the 19th c., and influence also seems to be restricted to some lexical items.
| VQAonline_00023404.png | Areal features are often under-appreciated, especially the more subtle structural and semantic ones, as opposed to the more superficial lexical and phonological ones.
And the contact between Slavic and Germanic was certainly significant, and started before the written record, which therefore makes it difficult to fully understand.
And there are more commonalities between Slavic and German phonology than chance alone would yield.
But the concrete example you give is provably not an example of Slavic influence on German.
'Kühe' as 'Kihe', 'Süden' as 'Siden', 'Höhle' as 'Hehle'
This phenomenon, Entrundung, is widespread in the Southwest too, including Alsatian in France, far away from Slavic influence. Quoting Wikipedia: Im Deutschen gilt Entrundung der mittelhochdeutschen Umlaute „ö“, „ü“ und „eu/äu“ zu „e“, „i“ und „ai“ in den meisten Dialekten des Oberdeutschen und des Mitteldeutschen.
That's also why Yiddish has it. The reason Polish and Czech have it for loanwords like Miller is because of local learned convention, perhaps based on the dialects with which they were in contact. Other Slavic languages like Russian and Bulgarian work differently, they tend to palatalise instead, so ü and ö become ju and jo. Some Slavic languages take the entrundung approach for German and French loanwords but just drop the umlaut for Ottoman ones, which again suggests a learned convention. Also note that in no Slavic language is there entrundung of eu (to aj) like in German dialects or Yiddish. And this pattern is not unique to Slavic languages - in Armenian and Georgian it is like in Russian and Bulgarian.
As a rule, German dialects vary much more North to South than East to West, historically and today.
Consider also that there were third groups, notably Baltic and Celtic, which were absorbed en masse into both Slavic and Germanic, which could explain some commonalities.
| https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/4477 |
linguistics | Recognize this script? | I've wondered about this script since I saw it years ago. I imagine it's an English cipher. Can anyone tell me?
| VQAonline_00023420.png | Sorry for digging up this old question but we finally have an answer.
I reposted this question to puzzling stackexhange thinking they would be better equipped to solve it. Surely enough, within fifteen minutes of my posting, the user Deusovi recognized the script as the Elian script and deciphered the first few lines. Later, I spent some time to fully decipher it (except the first line):
park nre renr
the c programming langua#ge!
i really want my pen!
create a cetter [=better?] interface for reports
hey mr flava! flava
i reall#y should practice my elian s#cript more
the d language is fun to use indeed!
i really should practice my elian script
mayby [=maybe?] # i should standerdiz ze [=standardize?]
{ changes pens }
testing this pen
it writes # mu#a [=much?] faster
| https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/12960 |
linguistics | Diacritic connecting c and t | What is the name and use of the extra bow on the letter c in Doctrine? Diacritic or calligraphic decoration, or misprint?
Edit: With the name given in the comments, I found an existing good answer here:
https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/25118/is-there-any-significance-in-little-curls-joining-the-st-and-ct-in-old-books
| VQAonline_00023474.png | It is not a diacritic, it is a ligature. These are probably more common in older typesetting.
The same thing can be done with the sequence <st> as with <ct>.
| https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/37321 |
linguistics | What do these diagrams of vowels actually represent? | I've heard many times that spoken language is subjected to variations and we never make the exact same sound when we speak, even for the same word. If that's the case, how can you be so exact about the placement of certain vowels in diagrams like these, especially when talking about certain languages like Russian and Swedish which have too many vowels in a specific area that makes it very crowded and it seems like maintaining a distinction is pretty much impossible.
I'm fully aware of the fact that in Swedish the primary distinction between some vowels phonemes is based on rounding, but there are still too many of them and not all can be distinguished primarily by rounding. Also, does the word primary here mean that they ARE in fact distinguished on other factors as well, which might include their positions in the vowel space, which would mean that native speakers do place them separately in their mouth when they make them?
| VQAonline_00023481.png | The "how" part is training on exemplars. First there needs to be some standard, and that was established by Daniel Jones with the cardinal vowel system. Essentially, Jones' students learned to produce the cardinal vowels, then taught their students. This provides reference points for a subset of the vowels in the IPA. The training tradition still exists in some institutions, and thanks to the miracle of the internet, one can find authoritative samples of the vowels (and consonants) performed by experts in the IPA, this chart from John Esling, and this chart with performances by Esling, House, Ladefoged and Wells (the Esling samples may be identical to his stand-alone collection). There are other such recordings, and classes that you can take.
These define the standard reference points for the IPA. If you hear Norwegian du you have a few choices as to which vowel it is closest to: credibly, [ʉ y Y] but not [u] or [æ]. If you listen to all of the reference samples, you will notice that the experts do not agree – this is a fundamental limit on the precision of the standard. Conventionally, "u" is assigned the value [ʉ] because (1) there is also [y] as in [dy], and (2) the vowel is auditorily closest to the standard [ʉ] for most expert performances. Each IPA symbol represents a range of values, and unfortunately ranges overlap a bit.
There is also a practice of micro-nudging vowel letters in the trapezoid, where the vowel [i] might be below the top line. This is the language-expert's judgment that the vowel is "a but lower", "a bit further back". Theoretically, this judgment can be aided by synthesizing vowels based on the formant values implied by this chart, and Keith Johnson did actually devise a "click on the chart" program which provided stimuli that aided people in making judgments as to where that vowel "is" (AFAIK it doesn't exist anymore for hardware reasons). One can generate comparative stimuli with Praat, which can give you a basis for saying "further back".
This is all about the phonetic values of vowels, and phonetic values are generally taken to be the primary determinant of vowel classification. However, phonological patterns also determine how people transcribe vowels. This is true to the point that people often disregard the phonetic facts in order to present a phonemic transcription, rather than a phonetic transcription. In Tigrinya, for example, the phoneme /ʌ/ is pronounced [ʌ ɛ æ a ɵ ɔ] depending on context, but this is (almost) never indicated in transcriptions, because it is rule-governed and people typically transcribe only contrastive details.
In other words, transcriptions and vowel charts are usually not claims about pronunciation, they are claims about the phonological system, but those claim are influenced by ideas of what the phonetics is. A couple of examples of phonetic vagarity are that the phoneme /e/ in Norwegian is usually a diphthong on the order of [ɛə], and the phonetics vs. phonology of Russian ы is a matter of extreme controversy (IMO [ɨ] is phonetically wrong but might be okay phonologically).
A chart like this might also represent mean formant values from a corpus in the language. Your particular chart looks more like a plot of computed formants, not a chart of auditory space.
| https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/39045 |
linguistics | Replacement of the letters in Japanese while compounding words | I've spent some time solving Fakepapershelfmaker NACLO problem, and later at solution I've read that some japanese letters do not require replacement while compounding.
In Japanese you should replace letters in the atomic words to give the compound word a specific meaning (for instance, initial h with b, initial k with g, and so on). As I've understood, this is a trick in order to exclude ambiguity.
However, solution says that some letters do not require a replacement. I guess that it could lead to ambiguity of compound words. And my question is: do Japanese really has such letters? And, if yes, in which way the ambiguity in this case is excluded?
| VQAonline_00023438.png | This phenomenon is called rendaku, or "sequential voicing".
Many phonemes in Japanese occur in voiced/unvoiced pairs. In kana writing, these are distinguished with a dakuten "voice mark" over the voiced version: for instance, か /ka/, が /ga/.
(Side note: in a few cases this reflects historical rather than current pronunciation: /h/ voices to /b/ because it was originally /ɸ/, and /β/ isn't distinguished from /b/.)
Rendaku means that the first sound in the second part of a compound becomes voiced...most of the time. In reality, it's not quite this simple. There are a few additional rules:
Branching constraints! This is what the NACLO problem is about.
If the sound is already voiced, nothing happens to it
Lyman's Law: rendaku doesn't happen if the second word contains any voiced obstruents
Rendaku also doesn't happen in "A and B" compounds: so yama "mountain" + kawa "river" could become yamakawa "mountain and river" or yamagawa "river which is on a mountain"
So as you can see, rendaku isn't completely free from ambiguity. Already-voiced sounds such as /n/, /r/, /j/ aren't affected by it at all, which is what the footnote in the problem is pointing out. But there are also specific words which completely ignore rendaku, or which cause it to happen inconsistently. A few roots become voiced when attached to nouns, but not to verbs. It doesn't help that this voicing isn't indicated at all in kanji writing.
In these cases, the ambiguity has to be resolved the same way as in English: context, world-knowledge, and familiarity with the language.
| https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/20192 |
linguistics | Is the V-T movement possible in English? | To clarify: V-T movement would be a type of movement of the V head (verb phrase) to I (or T) head (inflection phrase). Some languages, like French, allow for this movement. But during my syntax classes I've been told that such movement is illicit in English.
However, in a book on syntax (A. Witkos 'Movement Rules. Foundations of GB syntax of English' p. 252) I came across this sentence:
There is a student outside the classroom
it's bracketed derivation looked like this:
[IP There is [VP t(is) [PP a student [P' outside the classroom]]]
which shows an instance of such a movement. The 'is' trace sits in [head, VP] and then moves to [head, IP].
| VQAonline_00023444.png | Under the standard XP-Internal Subject Hypothesis, the derivation above is correct, and is does indeed exceptionally raise from V to T in cases like this.
It is true, though, that V-T movement (and further raising of finite main verbs into higher heads like Focus and C) was available in English until well after Shakespeare's time, and that, whereas in languages like Spanish, French, Italian or German it still remains generally available, in English it has since become restricted to a) auxiliaries (i.e., modals, aspectual have and be, passive be and 'dummy' do), b) the main verb be (in all its existential, identificational, or copular uses), and, to the extent the construction survives, in the speech of old-fashioned British English speakers, mainly, c) possessive uses of the main verb have, as in You haven't money, Have you money? (instead of the much more common You don't have money, Do you have money?).
The standard explanation for why V-T Raising has remained possible for just auxiliary verbs and main verb be used to be that none of them theta-marks its complements (and none projects a subject argument, either), which would leave them free to raise from the VP in order to check their inflectional features.
That may well be right for auxiliaries, certainly, copular uses of main verb be (e.g., She is brilliant, She is an engineer, She is in London, etc. in which the subject receives its theta-role from A, P or N), and for existential uses of be like the one you mention in your question, where be selects a PP complement but it is the P outside that theta-marks a student and the classroom.
However, that 'explanation' gets much more dubious, or plainly unacceptable, for a) existential uses of be in which be is not followed by any theta-marker (as in, e.g., There is a cafeteria, unless some hidden/ellipted PP structure is assumed, of course), b) 'identificational' uses of main verb be, as in That tall man is my brother, where is must be a two-place predicate and theta-mark the two NPs/DPs, and c), to the extent the construction survives, possessive uses of the main verb have, which is also a two-place predicate and must theta-mark its two arguments, the subject as 'Possessor' and the object as`Theme', or whatever the right role-label is for the entity 'possessed'.
Thus, what used to be the standard explanation for the exceptional survival of V-T raising in the above-mentioned cases is far from satisfactory, and, to my knowledge, please correct me if I am mistaken, it has not been replaced with any other, but the facts are solid enough: finite auxiliaries, finite main verb be, and, marginally, finite main verb have can still raise to T/Infl and higher, whereas no other English verbs can.
| https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/22842 |
linguistics | Why must an AdvP have at least one AdvP as a Daughter Node? | Source: p 78, Syntax, A Generative Introduction (3 ed, 2012) by Andrew Carnie.
Though I am only on Chapter 4 at the time of this post, I cannot wait until Chapter 6 to understand the following.
Here is a common mistake to avoid: Notice that the AdvP rule specifies that its modifier is another AdvP: AdvP ⟶ (AdvP) Adv. The rule does NOT say *AdvP ⟶ (Adv) Adv, so you will never get trees of the form shown in (28) [see above]:
You might find the tree in (27) a little confusing. There are two Advs and two AdvPs. In order to understand that tree a little better, let’s introduce a new concept: heads. We’ll spend much more time on heads in chapters 6 and 7, but here’s a first pass: The head of a phrase is the word that gives the phrase its category.
I reread pp 78-79, but still do not understand why 28 is wrong and only 27 is correct.
What is the main idea here? How does the concept of Heads resolve?
| VQAonline_00023432.png | If AdvP immediately dominated two Advs, what would the head of the phrase be? There must be one distinct head, and in 28) this could be either of the Advs, there would be no way to clearly decide which node is the head of the phrase. Therefore, you specify which adverb should be the head of the AdvP (here it is quickly, because this is the "main" adverb that is again modified by another adverb) and the issue is resolved, since the AdvP containing the adverb very can in no way be the head of the adverb phrae.
| https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/18981 |
literature | Explain the 28 Feb 2022 Dilbert cartoon use of the phrase "sticking the landing" | Can someone explain today's Dilbert cartoon, in particular explain what "sticking the landing" means?
| VQAonline_00023520.png | 'Stick the landing' is from gymnastics, when people pull off a tricky move and land neatly on both feet, properly balanced and with a flourish of the arms that communicates 'I did exactly what I intended to do'. It's like a whole-body 'QED'.
From Wiktionary
stick the landing (third-person singular simple present sticks the landing, present participle sticking the landing, simple past and past participle stuck the landing)
(sports) To complete a gymnastic or other athletic routine involving leaps, vaults, somersaults, etc. by landing firmly, solidly, and flawlessly on one's feet.
(aviation, astronautics) To execute a flawless landing (of an aircraft, rocket, or space capsule).
(idiomatic, by extension) To complete a process in an impressive and conclusive manner.
So in context, the character in green (Who I am gratefully advised by @PatDobson is called ‘Wally’) wishes to spend the rest of his life as a coffee-swilling blob of organic matter.
EDIT: I'm actively choosing not to address what the author may or may not have meant by referencing a DNA test. The test functions as the set up for the joke, and readers may bring whatever sub-text to the idea of DNA testing being used in the workplace according to their own world view without it affecting the joke.
| https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/21966 |
literature | Modern English versions of Wonders/Marvels of the East from the Nowell Codex | The famous epic poem Beowulf is known from a single manuscript, part of the Nowell Codex, which also contains other texts and fragments, including one called The Wonders of the East, sometimes also translated to modern English as The Marvels of the East, which describes fantastical beasts supposedly found in eastern regions of the world (presumably Asia).
I'm fascinated by this apparent knowledge (or pure myth?) of Asian regions dating back to so long ago in western Europe, and I'd like to learn more about it. I tried to search online for an English translation of The Wonders of the East, as exists for Beowulf, but without success. Scans of the original manuscript are digitised online, but this is of course in Old English.
Has The Wonders of the East been translated to modern English? More specifically, is there a translation which is public domain (obviously the original work is, but AFAIU [IANAL] translations are sometimes copyrighted separately) and preferably available online?
| VQAonline_00023518.png | I found the text on the site Rejected Scriptures. I also found the text in some other authoritative sources, and this seems to match up. (Note: leuuae means leagues.)
(I'm not quite sure which pictures from the manuscript match up with which paragraph yet.)
The colony is at the beginning of the land Antimolima, which land is 500 in the tally of the lesser measurement, which are called stadia, and 368 of the greater, which are called leuuae. On that island there is a great multitude of sheep, and from there to Babylon it is 168 of the lesser measurement called stadia, and 115 in the greater measurement called leuuae.
The colony is mostly populated with merchants; there are rams born there as big as oxen, living right up to the city of the Medes. The name of that city is Archemedon. It is the biggest city after Babylon. To there from Archemedon is 300 of the lesser measurement, stadia, and 200 of the greater, called leuuae. There are great monuments there, which are the works which the mighty Alexander of Macedon had made. The land is in length and breadth 200 of the lesser measurement, stadia, and 133 and a half of the greater, called leuuae.
As you go towards the Red Sea there is a place called Lentibeisinea, where there are hens born like ours, red in color. If any one tries to take or touch them, they immediately burn up all his body. That is extraordinary magic.
Wild beasts are also born there. When these wild beasts hear a human voice, they run far away. The beasts have eight feet, and valkyrie-eyes, and two heads. If anyone tries to touch them, they set their bodies aflame. They are extraordinary beasts.
Hascellentia is the name of the land on the way to Babylon, that is in length and breadth nine of the lesser measurements called stadia. It is subject to the kingdom of the Medes, and that land is filled with all good things. This place contains serpents. The serpents have two heads, whose eyes shine at night as brightly as lanterns.
In one land there are born donkeys which have horns as big as oxen's. They are in that very great wasteland which is in the southern part of Babylonia. They retreat to the Red Sea, because of the multitude of snakes called Corsiae which are in those places. They have horns as big as ram's. If they strike or touch anyone, he immediately dies. In those lands there is an abundance of pepper. The snakes keep the pepper in their eagerness. In order to take the pepper people set fire to the place and then the snakes flee from the high ground into the earth; because of this the pepper is black. From Babylon to the city of Persia where the pepper grows is in the lesser measure which is called stadia 800 units. It is reckoned in the greater measure that is called leuuae six hundred and twenty-three and a half units. The place is barren because of the multitude of the snakes.
Also there are born there half-dogs who are called Conopenae. They have horses' manes and boars' tusks and dogs' heads and their breath is like a fiery flame. These lands are near the cities which are filled with all the worldly wealth: that is, in the south of Egypt.
In one land people are born who are six feet tall. They have beards to their knees, and hair to their heels. They are called Homodubii, that is 'doubtful ones', and they eat raw fish and live on them.
The river is named Capi in the same place, which is called Gorgoneus, that is 'valkyrie-like'. Ants are born there as big as dogs, which have feet like grasshoppers, and are of red and black color. The ants dig up gold from the ground from before night to the fifth hour of the day. People who are bold enough to take the gold bring with them male camels, and females with their young. They tie up the young before they cross the river. They load the gold onto the females, and mount them themselves, and leave the males there. Then the ants detect the males, and while the ants are occupied with the males, the men cross over the river with the females and the gold. They are so swift that one would think that they were flying.
Between these two rivers is a colony called Locotheo, which is situated between the Nile and the Brixontes. The Nile is the prince of foul rivers, and flows through Egypt. And they call the river Archoboleta, which means 'great water'. In these regions are born great multitudes of elephants.
There are people born there, who are, fifteen feet tall and have white bodies and two faces on a single head, feet and knees very red, and long noses and black hair. When they want to give birth, they travel in ships to India, and bring their young into the world there.
There is a land called Ciconia in Callia, where people are born of three colors, whose heads have manes like lions' heads, and they are twenty feet tall, and have mouths as big as fans. If they see or perceive anyone in those lands, or if anyone is following them, then they take flight and flee, and sweat blood. They are thought to be men.
Beyond the River Brixontes, east from there, there are people born big and tall, who have feet and shanks twelve feet long, flanks with chests seven feet long. They are of a black colour, and are called Hostes. As certainly as they catch a person they devour him.
Then there are on the Brixontes wild animals which are called Lertices. They have donkeys ears and sheep's wool and bird's feet.
Then there is another island, south of the Brixontes, on which there are born men without heads who have their eyes and mouth in their chests. They are eight feet tall and eight feet wide.
Dragons are born there, who are one hundred and fifty feet long, and are as thick as great stone pillars. Because of the abundance of the dragons, no one can travel easily in that land.
From this place there is another country on the south side of the ocean, which is reckoned in the lesser measurement known as stadia 323, and in the greater which is called leuuae 255. There are born there Homodubii, that is 'doubtful ones'. They have a human shape to the navel and below that the shape of a donkey, and they have long legs like birds, and a soft voice. If they see or perceive anyone in those lands, they run far off and flee.
Then there is another place with barbarous people, and they have kings under them to the number of 110. They are the worst and most barbarous people, and there are two lakes there, one of the sun and the other of the moon. The suds lake is hot in the day and cold at night, and the moon's lake is hot at night and cold in the day. Their width is in the lesser measurement which is called stadia 200 units and in the greater called leuuae one hundred and thirty-three and a half.
In this place there are kinds of trees which are like laurel and olive. From these trees the most expensive oil, balsam, is wholly produced. The place is in the lesser measurement that is called stadia 151 and in the greater which is called leuuae fifty-one.
Then there is an island in the Red Sea where there is a race of people we call Donestre, who have grown like soothsayers from the head to the navel, and the other part is human. And they know all human speech. When they see someone from a foreign country, they name him and his kinsmen with the names of acquaintances, and with lying words they beguile him and capture him, and after that eat him all up except for the head, and then sit and weep over the head.
Going east from there is a place where people are born who are in size fifteen feet tall and ten broad. They have large heads and ears like fans. They spread one ear beneath them at night, and they wrap themselves with the other. Their ears are very light and their bodies are as white as milk. And if they see or perceive anyone in those lands, they take their ears in their hands and go far and flee, so swiftly one might think that they flew.
Then there is an island on which people are born whose eyes shine as brightly as if one had lit a great lantern on a dark night.
Then there is an island, which is in length and breadth in the lesser measurement that is called stadia 360, and in the greater called leuuae 90. There was built in the days of Belus the king and Jove a temple made from wrought iron and brass. And in the same place there is east from there another temple, sacred to the sun, in which is ordained a fine and gentle priest, and he governs the halls and looks after them.
Then there is a golden vineyard near the rising of the sun which has berries of 150 feet. On them, berries are produced like pearls or jewels.
There is another kingdom in the lands of Babylon where there is found the biggest mountain between the mountain of Media and of Armenia. It is the biggest and highest mountain of all. There are decent people there who have power and dominion over the Red Sea. Precious jewels are produced there.
Around those places there are born women, who have beards down to their breasts, and have made clothes out of horse's hide. They are called great huntresses, and instead of dogs they breed tigers and leopards, that are the fiercest beasts. And they hunt for all the kinds of wild beasts which are born on the mountain.
Then there are other women who have boar's tusks and hair down to their heels and ox-tails on their loins. Those women are thirteen feet tall and their bodies are of the whiteness of marble. And they have camel's feet and boar's teeth. Because of their uncleanness they were killed by Alexander the Great of Macedon. He killed them because he could not capture them alive, because they have offensive and disgusting bodies.
By the ocean is a breed of wild animals that is called Catini, and they are very beautiful animals. And there are people there who live on raw meat and honey.
On the left-hand side of the kingdom in which there are wild animals called Catini, there are hospitable people, kings who have subdued many tyrants. Their boundaries border on the Ocean, and from there, from the left-hand section, there are many kings.
This race of people live for many years, and they are generous people. If anyone visits them they give him a woman before they let him go. When Alexander of Macedon visited them, he was amazed at their humanity, and would not kill them or cause them any harm.
Then there are kinds of tree from which the most precious stones are produced, and upon which they grow.
There is another race of people there of black color to look at, who are called Ethiopians.
Then there is land in which very many vineyards grow, where there is a couch of ivory. It is 306 feet long.
Then there is a mountain called Adamans. On that mountain is the kind of bird which is called a Gryphon. Those birds have four feet and the tail of a cow and the head of an eagle.
In the same place is another kind of bird called Phoenix. They have crests on their heads like peacocks, and they build their nests from the most precious spices, which are called cinnamon; and from its breath, after a thousand years, it kindles a flame, and then rises up young again from the ashes.
Then there is another mountain where there are black people, and no one else can approach those people because the mountain is all aflame.
Here it says how Mambres opened the magical books of his brother Iamnes, and to him were revealed the deep mysteries of his brother's idolatry. The soul of Iamnes answered him with these words: 'Brother, I am dead not unjustly, but rightly and justly am I dead, and God's judgment stands against me because I alone was wiser than all the other sorcerers, and I withstood the two brothers called Moses and Aaron, who performed those great portents and signs. For that reason am I dead, and for this am I brought to the middle kingdom of hell, where there is the great heat of eternal punishment, and where there is the pit of perpetual torment from which no one ever ascends. Now, my brother Mambres, take care that you do well to your children and your friends, because in hell there is nothing good, only misery and darkness; and after you are dead, then you will come to hell, and your dwelling-place will be among the dead, down in the ground, and your pit will be two cubits wide and four cubits long.'
| https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/19219 |
literature | What does Justice Scalia mean by "Thoreauvian 'you-may-do-what-you-like-so-long-as-it-does-not-injure-someone-else' beau ideal"? | I'm more interested in literature than law here. I think this means the same thing as "your rights end where mine begin"? Scalia is alluding to Henry David Thoreau, but my English is too unproficient to read Thoreau. Why does Scalia allude to Thoreau? What's "beau ideal"?
An example of an opinion rejecting the evaluative portion of a policy argument is Justice Scalia's separate concurring opinion
the "nude dancing" case Barnes v. Glen Theatre.323 In finding that there was no First Amendment right to perform or view nude dancing, Scalia wrote, "There is no basis for thinking that our society ever shared the Thoreauvian 'you-may-do-what-you-like-so-long-as-it-does-not-injure-someone-else' beau ideal—much less for
thinking that it was written into the Constitution."324
Wilson Huhn. The Five Types of Legal Argument (2 ed, 2014). Pg 140.
| VQAonline_00023508.png | Thoreau was a proponent of limited government. His famous essay Civil Disobedience begins:
I heartily accept the motto, "That government is best which governs least"; and I should like to see it acted up to more rapidly and systematically. Carried out, it finally amounts to this, which also I believe- "That government is best which governs not at all"; and when men are prepared for it, that will be the kind of government which they will have.
Thoreau took the motto "That government is best which governs least" from an unsigned editorial in the first issue of The United States Magazine and Democratic Review (1837). This quote from the editorial explains Scalia's characterization of Thoreau's political philosophy:
The best government is that which governs least.... Government should have as little as possible to do with the general business and interests of the people. If it once undertake these functions as its rightful province of action, it is impossible to say to it, "thus far shalt thou go, and no farther." (p. 6–7)
In other words, government should not regulate anything that it does not absolutely have to:
Its domestic action should be confined to the administration of justice, for the protection of the natural equal rights of the citizen, and the preservation of social order. (p. 7)
This is a libertarian, laissez-faire ideology. Under such an ideology, viewing nude dancing would not be banned. If someone is willing to dance nude, and someone else willing to watch, it's not the government's business to step in and outlaw that.
Scalia argues that beautiful as this philosophy might be, it is not widely shared in American society. He also says it cannot be found in the Constitution and so is not fundamental to American government. He therefore says that regulating nude dancing is something that would fall under the government's remit.
Personally, of course, I find neither this alleged beau ideal nor Antonin Scalia's jurisprudence the slightest bit attractive, nor even intellectually honest, but that's neither here nor there.
| https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/16273 |
literature | How long have the cantillation marks been around? | Over the whole Jewish Bible, there are cantillation marks that denote how the text is supposed to be chanted. The sounds differ between places, such as between the Ashkenazi and the Sephardic communities. However, as far as I can tell, the marks are the same. How long have the current cantillation marks been around?
Here's an example of some marks:
| VQAonline_00023489.png | Current consensus seems to be that cantillation marks as they are currently used originated around the 9th or 10th century CE, relatively recently in the history of Judaism. Cantillation itself has existed for a long while, but cantillation marks are a relatively recent means of codifying an otherwise opaque word-of-mouth (and potentially chironomical) system. There are very few facts about cantillation that are commonly held to be true, and there is a lot of debate about what the real history is.
This codification wasn't exactly early on in the history of Judaism - if it were, we'd expect to see more references to the marks specifically in the Talmud. Baruch Davidson, via Chabad notes that:
The use of the cantillation marks in current use dates to at least the 9th-10th century CE. This was the era of the Masoretes, meticulous scribes in Tiberias, Jerusalem and Babylon who worked to establish a precise common text, vowelization and cantillation for the Tanakh.
This is echoed by Cantor David Pincus:
Eventually, in the 9th century C.E. (in the "Common Era") a family of scholars in Tiberias codified a system of printed symbols which would indicate: 1) the grammatical phrases of each Torah verse, and 2) a series of notes for each sign.
However, this doesn't preclude the possibility of cantillation marks predating this time - it only serves as a claim that our modern cantillation originated around that time. It does indeed appear that other forms of cantillation, both borrowed and manufactured, existed before the 9th century, and originated out of a practice called chironomy, where hand-gestures were used to indicate how a part should be sung. But it's plausible that information on the exact origins has been lost; the Jewish Encyclopedia states:
Attempts have been made to reconstitute the oldest form of the cantillation by J. C. Speidel [et. al.]. ...their conclusions [outweigh] the probable.
So, there you have it. It would seem to have originated in the 9th or 10th century out of a desire to codify, and make a pass at standardizing, the way cant works.
As to the differences between Ashkenazi and Sephardic cant, well - cantillation isn't a part of the Torah itself, and doesn't necessarily have to stay fixed. Since there's no religious imperative to maintain universal cant in Judaism, it makes sense that different groups and regions would drift apart in cant at different times. (If you've ever been to services in differing temples, you'll know what I mean - many of the cants sound similar, and although frequently, are not always identical.)
More history for the curious: the origins of cantillation as a practice are not dated, and potentially aren't dateable at all. The Jewish Encyclopedia cites that:
The earliest reference to the definite modulation of the Scripture occurs in the Babylonian Talmud (Meg. 32a), where R. Johanan deprecates the indifference of such as "read [the text] without tunefulness and repeat [the Mishnah] without song."
So it's known that as a practice it goes back at least that far. Chabad holds a slightly less reserved view:
The tradition of the ta'amim by which the Torah is to be sung, however, is as old as the Torah itself. It was taught to Moses together with the vowels, as it is integral to the correct understanding of the Torah.
Either way, this establishes that the origins of cantillation itself seem disconnected from the origins of cantillation marks, which is tangential, but important.
| https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/1370 |
literature | Does V reference Stanislaw Lem's "His Master's Voice", and if so, why? | I've recently been reading and re-reading Alan Moore and David Lloyd's V for Vendetta. After having skimmed through it multiple times and settling a few questions I had about the continuity, only one question remains. In volume I, chapter 2, The Voice, on page 13 the following conversation occurs:
... they eradicated some cultures more thoroughly than they did others.
No Tamla and no Trojan. No Billie Holiday or Black Uhuru...
Just His Master's Voice. Every hour. On the hour.
We'll have to see what we can do about that...
Italics authors', bold emphasis and choice of capitalisation mine
V says "his master's voice", which is also the title of the novel by Stanislaw Lem.
I can see that V is most likely talking about the order in which the citizens of post-war Britain live - the oppression, constant surveillance, fascism, etc. V's primary goal throughout the novel is to make people raise their heads and pave their own way with their own decisions, as opposed to their masters' voice.
But still I find the choice of words here peculiar. Having skimmed through Lem's novel's description on Wikipedia I can see that it is not exactly about the same things as V for Vendetta. There is a bit about "criticizing Cold War military and political decision-making as corrupting the ethical conduct of scientists", but as I said, this is not what V for Vendetta is about.
So here comes my question: is this quote a conscious reference to Stanislaw Lem's His Master's Voice? If so, how exactly are the two books linked? If not, what explains this choice of words (for instance, "their master's voice" would be more suitable, I think)?
I would appreciate if spoilers from Lem's novels be tagged as such
| VQAonline_00023490.png | No, it has nothing to do with Lem's novel. It's a play on the famous trademark originated by the Gramophone Company (and later used by EMI) in the UK and used by Victor (and later RCA) in the USA. Take a look at the context:
Tamla and Trojan are both record labels known for releasing music by (respectively) African-American or African-British artists. (Tamla was the name used in the UK by Motown Records.)
Billie Holiday was an African-American jazz & blues singer.
Black Uhuru is a Jamaican reggae group.
Essentially, V is saying that music by black people has been eradicated from the national media, and replaced by state propaganda.
| https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/2122 |
literature | What do you call the "message" written before a poem? | From Re Judicial by Baticuling (Jesús Balmori) in El libro de mis vidas manileñas (1928)
Before the first stanza, the author begins with a little message: "Antonio Manipula, juez ... y falsificación." This provides the reader with some background on what the poem is about: some judge named Manipula condemned for embezzlement and fraud. The first two lines say "these days, that who doesn't rob is a mule and those who don't embezzle are fools", and goes on in how such crimes are "ordinary" (corrientes).
What is the proper term for such a message?
This isn't limited to spanish-literature because I think that there are English poems with such a feature, although I can't find any.
| VQAonline_00023516.png | These are very rare in English (I don't know how common they are in Spanish); I've identified two poems that have them. A word fr them is headnotes.
Some of these are arguments. From Wikipedia
An argument in literature is a brief summary, often in prose, of a poem or section of a poem or other work. It is often appended to the beginning of each chapter, book, or canto. They were common during the Renaissance as a way to orient a reader within a large work.
For example, Around the World in Eighty Days has an argument at the beginning of each chapter, the first one being:
Chapter I
IN WHICH PHILEAS FOGG AND PASSEPARTOUT ACCEPT EACH OTHER,
THE ONE AS MASTER, THE OTHER AS MAN
If you need a name for a message at the beginning of a poem which is not an argument, you could use the word "headnote". The definition in Collins Dictionary
is
a brief explanatory note prefacing a chapter, poem, story, legal report, etc.
which seems to fit.
They are probably not “epigraphs” — The Poetry Foundation
defines epigraph as:
A quotation from another literary work that is placed beneath the title at the beginning of a poem or section of a poem.
This is a poetry-centered definition. You can have epigraphs before chapters and stories as well. However, they generally have to be quotes from some other work.
I also wouldn't call them prologues. There are some famous poems that have prologues:
The Canterbury Tales, Piers Plowman, Robert Browning's the Two Poets Of Croisic. All of these are actually parts of the poem, written in poetry and not prose.
One poem I found with a headnote is Coleridge's The Rime of the Ancient Mariner, the original version. It starts out as follows, with what Coleridge calls an argument:
THE RIME OF THE ANCYENT MARINERE
ARGUMENT.
How a Ship having passed the Line was driven by
Storms to the cold Country towards the South Pole;
and how from thence she made her course to the
tropical Latitude of the Great Pacific Ocean; and of the
strange things that befell; and in what manner the
Ancyent Marinere came back to his own Country.
The other poem I found with a headnote is by Richard Wilbur. It starts:
Ballade for the Duke of Orléans
who offered a prize at Blois, circa 1457, for the best ballade employing the line “ Je meurs de soif auprès de la fontaine.”
This poem, despite containing the line “I die of thirst, here at the fountain-side” is not a translation of one of the dozen or so Middle French poems we know containing that line, but a new ballade written by Wilbur.
| https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/18520 |
literature | What is meant by the word "cumfarting" in the 1742 English novel "Joseph Andrews"? | Yes I know it sounds like a superslang portmanteau of modern obscenities (and indeed it is), which is why I was surprised to see it in a 1742 book, and why I'm asking.
Toward the beginning of Book 4, Chapter 5 of The History of the Adventures of Joseph Andrews and of his Friend Mr. Abraham Adams is the following passage, with bolding added by me
"Why, there it is in peaper," answered the justice, showing him a deposition which, in the absence of his clerk, he had writ himself, of which we have with great difficulty procured an authentic copy; and here it follows verbatim et literatim:—
The depusition of James Scout, layer, and Thomas Trotter, yeoman, taken before mee, one of his magesty's justasses of the piece for Zumersetshire.
"These deponants saith, and first Thomas Trotter for himself saith, that on the — of this instant October, being Sabbath-day, betwin the ours of 2 and 4 in the afternoon, he zeed Joseph Andrews and Francis Goodwill walk akross a certane felde belunging to layer Scout, and out of the path which ledes thru the said felde, and there he zede Joseph Andrews with a nife cut one hassel twig, of the value, as he believes, of three half-pence, or thereabouts; and he saith that the said Francis Goodwill was likewise walking on the grass out of the said path in the said felde, and did receive and karry in her hand the said twig, and so was cumfarting, eading, and abatting to the said Joseph therein. And the said James Scout for himself says that he verily believes the said twig to be his own proper twig," &c.
Google Ngram shows virtually no use of the word other than, presumably, copies of this book itself (huge spike in 1742) and, after 1880, mostly few analyses of it.
I found one dissertation by Przemysław Uściński which suggests in a footnote the word cumfarting is part of "a brilliant parody of tedious legal language" (pg. 164).
Helen Thompson suggests something similar, though more specific, in Fictional Matter, her book on chemistry and English novels. In fact she quotes the word specifically and individually (pg. 215):
Typography concretizes—and, in the eyes of the reader whose literacy enlists her in Fielding’s game, rectifies—an abuse of justice also enacted in words.
“Cumfarting” obviously invalidates the juridical text’s claim to propri- ety. In this capacity, language in Joseph Andrews acts: by turning words into things, Fielding lends them qualities that override the prejudicial enactment of the law they would enable.
However everyone seems to be skirting the question: What did cumfarting mean? Or, assuming it's a neologism, what might it have been imagined to mean by an 18th century reader?
Did "cum" and "fart" have the same meanings in 1742 as today (to orgasm & to flatulate, respectively)? Did one but not the other, and it pairing just sounded funny?
Or was it just a completely meaningless pun on "comforting" that only today sounds sexual/filthy? If so, what’s the evidence of meaninglessness? Thompson and Uściński seem to argue it was a double entendre, but don’t specify the second entendre.
| VQAonline_00023503.png | This is not an obscenity about "climaxing" or "passing gas." It's a phonetic rendering of what was then spoken English. For instance, the sexual meaning of "come" is a modern usage dating back to the 1970s.
The bolded text, "and so was cumfarting, eading, and abatting," reads in modern English, "and so was comforting, aiding, and abetting..." That might be a pleading in a court proceeding.
| https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/13592 |
martialarts | Punching with knuckles first correctly | It seems like when I punch and need to punch with knuckles first, I have to angle down, otherwise, it hits the bottom of fingers first and not the knuckles, when practicing against heavy bag.
Check the angle of pictures below,
is this true for you all? Or how do you deal with the angle of knuckles and first contact? See how it hits the green line below.
Stock photos above (not of me, which show what I mean) :
| VQAonline_00023594.png | It is normal for the middle knuckles of your fingers to lead your first knuckles (top knuckles). This protrusion of the middle knuckles is exaggerated when wearing gloves. Your middle knuckles will be pushed back in towards your palm upon impact whilst your first knuckles will move very little, providing your wrist is firm and straight.
Do not compensate by tilting your wrist, or you will be at far greater risk of wrist injury and much of the potential power of your strike may be lost by your wrist buckling upon impact.
Concentrate on aligning the bones which run along the top of your hand - from the knuckles of your first and second fingers to your wrist - with the bones of your forearm. Focus on maintaining this alignment at the point of impact and on directing your power through the top knuckle of your second finger alone, or in combination with the top knuckle of your first finger. The sharper the tip of the spear, the more easily it will penetrate the body.
Remember that in a fight, there are many target areas of a body which protrude, unlike a heavy bag's relatively flat surface. This, along with punch angle, means it is sometimes possible to land cleanly with your first knuckles alone, but it is otherwise normal for your middle knuckles to reach the target first.
| https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/13332 |
martialarts | Falling leaf ukemi | What is the Japanese terminology for a falling leaf break fall?
For those who do not know what it looks like. From standing, you would train it by putting both hands on the floor, kicking your legs upwards (almost to an hand stand), and lowering your arms as your legs go down in a see saw motion -- looking like a falling leaf. It is the ukemi that you would do when (for example) tori does oahitaoshi from kneeling. Or the ukemi from Hiki taoshi. In the drawing of hiki taoshi below, the falling leaf breakfall is what uke does in steps 7 to 10.
| VQAonline_00023531.png | Yes, I believe this is called, "zempo ukemi".
Note that this is not "zempo kaiten ukemi". The "kaiten" part means rolling, and without rolling, you simply have "zempo ukemi".
I didn't find much on the subject on the web. There is this page which you can send to Google Translate:
http://escuelakuroobi.wordpress.com/2012/02/09/155/
It describes the Zempo Ukemi as a "forward fall using forearms and thighs or toes to cushion the fall. It is also recommended turning the head to one side to avoid a blow in the face."
I also found this article:
http://kitakazebudo.blogspot.com/2010/04/forward-splat-fall.html
It seems the author of that article also sees this as a "zempo ukemi", but isn't completely sure about the name.
In Aikido circles, I see this often referred to in English as the "soft" version of the front breakfall.
And in English, I see it often referred to as "The Worm" breakfall (probably named after the dance move by the same name). Oh, and I've also seen it referred to as "The Wave" breakfall.
I think the reason for the naming confusion might be that this actually has no specific name in Japanese. There are many versions of "mae ukemi" (front breakfalls), each with a particular variation. Like you might see a traditional front breakfall, the kind without the rolling, but instead of falling down straight, you do a kind of split outwards with your legs and fall from the center of mass instead. We used to call that a "parachute" front breakfall, because you're straddling your legs out like a parachute. But in Japanese, this is still just called mae ukemi. They don't usually distinguish it from the regular version.
And there are other types of mae ukemi as well. They're all named "mae ukemi". Like the Bujinkan ninjutsu guys have a variation of mae ukemi where you go down on one knee while pressing back up into the air with the other leg.
That's about all I can offer on this subject.
| https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/2933 |
martialarts | Name and meaning of stance where you stand with fists on hips? | After the first Kiai in Heian Sandan (source):
Bring left foot to the right, pivot left 180 degrees on the right
foot, informal-attention stance (slowly), bring fists to hips, elbows
to the sides, backs of fists face forward
The stance at the bottom-right corner of the image below, marked as the 11th move (image taken from here):
We didn't get to study this Kata's Bunkai yet in the class I attend.
What is the meaning of this move and stance? To a novice like me it seems like a vulnerable position that I wouldn't expect to being used in combat.
| VQAonline_00023550.png | Your intuition is correct. It is a very vulnerable position. That should give you a clue about its bunkai.
For those that don't know, Bunkai is the Okinawan karate term used to refer to the practice of analyzing a kata for its self-defense applications.
Right off the bat, you know this is not a block. And you can conclude that because it would be insane to keep your hands low and at the hips like that if you're expecting someone to punch you.
Another clue is that the form has you step forward and then turn around.
Well, what these observations tell me is: 1) Someone is either holding onto you, or you are grabbing someone else, because you're not expecting a strike. And 2) That person is behind you after you turn around.
Let's observe the bent elbows also. Why bend them like that?
The next thing you do from this position is to make a big step out while turning your body 90 degrees. You drop into a low horse stance. And you do this while keeping your elbows and arms locked in that original position.
But before that, did you notice that high knee? You actually bring that knee way up as high as your chest! What's that about?
At the end of this step forward, you twist your torso counter-clockwise and press forward with your right elbow a bit while remaining upright. You keep your arms in their initial position chambered at the hips throughout the movement.
Why would you not move your arms from the initial position to the next position?
I think we're nearly done. We just have to add one more observation. Position 12 to position 13 follows up by doing a back-fist to head height. What's that about? It must mean our arm is now free. Was it free all along?
Okay, let's get to the explanation.
This is what Judo refers to as an "O-Goshi-Nage" (hip throw), but there's a twist, which I'll get to in a moment.
First, in the movement just before you turned around (movement 10 in the diagram), the position has your right arm straight out after a punch to the solar plexus. And your left fist is chambered at your left hip. It's a pretty typical "karate" stance. What does it mean?
The left fist chambered on the left hip is an indication that you've grabbed someone by their wrist or their sleeve and have pulled it back to your hip. Otherwise, it's ridiculous to keep your left hand that low. In a real fight, you would only do that if you had grabbed his wrist or sleeve like I said. You would never want to drop your hand to your hip in real life.
Then you step forward with feet together and turn 180 degrees. While doing that, you're putting your arms in the weird elbows-out position with your fists both chambered at your hip. Why?
Well imagine a guy is in front of you. You've just grabbed his right wrist with your left hand and yanked it to your hip. You took your other arm (right arm) and reached around behind his back and grabbed a hold of his belt or his clothing at his right hip. And you turned your back towards him as you did it, so that your back is now against his front.
You still have control over his right wrist. It's still being held securely at your left hip at this point.
This position now looks more or less exactly like the kata's position 11.
Next, you bring your knee straight up high. Why?
Well if you have control over his right arm by pulling it to your left hip as I've mentioned, his right elbow is now pointed down. That means you get an arm break for free here by simply bringing your knee straight up into his elbow. The leverage provides the strength to keep his arm straightened as you knee it. Snap!
Incidentally, this explains why your feet are together as you turn around and why you're in a high stance. Usually you want a lower stance if you do a hip throw like you're about to do next. But if you're in a low stance, you can't break that arm of his as easily.
And I've seen variations of this form where you don't just bring your knee straight up, you sweep it inwards also, as you bring it up. That could be more effective for breaking the elbow, since the elbow points slightly outward and not just perfectly downward.
Next, you step out on a 90 degree angle into a low horse stance while maintaining the original arm positions. Why?
This is the hip throw (o-goshi-nage). You maintain control on his right wrist with your left hand while using your hip to throw him over your right side. You let go of him at his waist, though, after the throw. The low horse stance gives you the leverage. Taking a step while doing it provides some additional momentum.
Position 13 has you then do a back-fist high. We've seen this before in classical jujitsu, aikido, and judo. It's used as a distraction. It's a way of saying, "You might want to begin this sequence by doing a quick back-fist to his face."
While he's distracted by the back-fist, you can do stuff to him more easily, including that elbow break.
But I left out one detail: What is the scenario where you might find yourself able to use this?
There are actually many scenarios where it can apply. The basics are: Attacker is facing the defender. The attacker has his right hand forward in a position that can be grabbed easily by the defender. The attacker's left hand can be at his side, or it can be grabbing the defender's lapel.
I have one particular scenario in mind that I think makes the most sense:
Imagine someone is threatening you with a knife in his right hand. He's pointing it at you in front of him. Maybe his right leg is forward, or maybe he's standing square with you. His left hand is in a guard position, perhaps.
You begin by doing a quick back-fist to the face. That causes him to be distracted, and his eyes will be closed and unable to see what you're about to do, if you're fast enough.
Next, your left hand reaches up and grabs his right wrist or sleeve from the inside. Some people call this is a "monkey grab". You pull that wrist back to your left hip while twisting his wrist so that the under-side is pointing upwards, and his thumb is pointing outwards. This elongates his arm and points his elbow downwards. It also means that blade of the knife is pointing away from your body, which is important. Otherwise, he might use that knife to slash or stab at your abdomen.
And then you complete the application. You step inwards to loop your right hand back behind him, then do the standing elbow break with your knee, and finish with a hip throw.
The elbow break is only important if your opponent has a weapon in his hand. It removes the threat of that weapon. And that's why I chose this scenario. Also, if he has a knife, twisting his wrist with a sudden jerk to your hip can cause the knife to go flying out of his hand.
An alternative to this bunkai is to go all the way back to the beginning. This time your left hand grabs his left hand instead of his right hand. And so you yank his left hand to your left hip, step forward, turn 180 degrees (your back towards him), and then press your right elbow against his elbow as you turn. You're side by side now. The pressure will cause an arm bar. Stepping out and at 90 degrees will extend that arm bar and throws him by it. It could also break that arm. The back-fist at the end can be used if the throw wasn't successful and it merely moved him.
That alternative bunkai feels good to me, but it lacks the high knee. It wouldn't make sense in this context. So this means that this bunkai is less likely to be the original intent of those movements in the kata in my opinion.
Being able to see this stuff requires cross-studying in classical jujitsu, in my opinion. Because, that's what karate kata is. It's classical jujitsu, encoded in a unique way meant to make it easier and more reliable to remember.
Hope that helps.
| https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/7008 |
martialarts | Punching: Which way to Rotate Knuckles? | Why do they teach person to hit with knuckles horizontal in especially MMA and Muay Thai? It seems this can cause wrist damage, and hyperextension over the years. In Krav Maga they say to rotate muscles at 45 degrees.
a) if you test your bare knuckles against wall, for most people
index/middle knuckles will naturally hit at 45. https://youtu.be/67fcgggDIDc?t=204 (there are certain exceptions, as everyone has different anatomical features)
b) if you hit at horizontal, it will work. However, you may have to bend wrist down so your knuckles naturally hit (this can cause wrist jam or hyperextension)
c) can also punch with 135 degrees of rotation, with index/middle knuckles down. However, this may cause wrist twist jam and inflexibility. https://youtu.be/fWeo0Od8xxM?t=117
Punching uses index and middle knuckles, so not sure why people are going with options b and c. Sure rotating can cause more damage, but by how much? I actually get little more power and flexibility range, with only slight rotation. Any insight is helpful.
Resource: Complete Krav Maga: The Ultimate Guide to Over 250 Self-Defense and Combative Techniques, Darrin Levine
| VQAonline_00023582.png | There are lots of different ways to punch: There's perfectly vertical like kung-fu / wing-chun does it, also known as a "half-twisting" punch. There's the 3/4 twisting punch like your krav-maga and Okinawan karate tends to do. There's perfectly horizontal like Japanese karate and Taekwondo does it, also known as the "full twisting" punch. There's the corkscrew punch after that, which you're going to see most often in boxing.
So which is right? Which is better?
The answer is: It depends, all, none.
There are advantages and disadvantages to all of them. While the risk of breaking your finger bones or spraining your wrist is higher when punching hard objects like heads, no particular punch does better in this regard. That's provided you're doing them right. And to know if you're doing a punch wrong, you'll want to punch a heavy bag to see whether or not it would cause any problems in real life.
That's absolutely vital. If you don't train using a heavy bag or some kind of hard resistance, it won't matter if your form is technically perfect, you're just going to end up hurt. You need to condition your body to punch solid objects. And you can condition your body to punch in any of these ways without getting hurt.
So, let's just get that out of the way. None of these punches will end up hurting you any more or less than any of the others, so long as you're hitting a heavy bag and conditioning your body to punch with those punches.
If you do actually find that you get hurt when punching the bag even if you're going light, then it says that the punch you're doing can't be done without hurting you. So you learn not to do that punch. It's just that simple. This takes just a minute or two to figure out.
What you'll notice with a half-twist punch (the vertical fist that kung-fu / wing-chun likes) is that it requires you keep your elbows in and pointed down. The force you generate is with your legs rather than just punching with the arm. There's very little biceps or triceps involved in the punch. And it feels like you're driving a wedge down the center line of the body. People that use it will just keep walking forward and use the force of stepping itself to attack. Since you're not swinging it from the outside, it lends itself well to short range fighting. Martial arts which use center line theory utilize this punch as their main punch.
But that half-twisting punch has some problems. First, it often relies on short power, which really depends on how skilled you are at it. Beginners will have very weak punches. It's debatable, but even experts at it tend to have weaker punches than western style boxing punches would be. But power is not really the goal with half-twisting punches. Or I'll say it's not the only goal. The main focus is to deliver quick, somewhat powerful strikes down the center line in order to attack your opponent's structure. And for that, it's fine.
The worst part about the half-twisting punch is that it leaves you wide open for punches to your face. Your elbow and shoulder are down. You can't deflect a hook punch to your head without taking the time to move first.
A western style boxer has this figured out by utilizing the extra, downward twisting turn at the end of the strike. Ever notice that about boxing punches? Ever wonder why they do it? It seems "wrong" to most people.
Ramsey Dewey did a whole video about this, which you should see:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NLVj7orEGcs
His take is that you do that corkscrew turn at the end of the punch in order to raise both your elbow and your shoulder. That provides a shield to defend against punches to your face while you're performing the punch.
It has nothing to do with power, but rather, with defense. Or at least, it's debatable whether you can get any extra power or lose power by doing that extra little twist at the end.
So, power isn't the only goal of a good punch. It's just one of many goals. If your punch leaves you wide open to punches to your head, then your punch is kind of "weak" in a sense, regardless of how powerful it is.
Let's get back to the 3/4-turn punch that you mentioned from krav-maga, and which is similar in some ways to that of Okinawan karate. Now that you understand how important the shoulder and elbow are in defense, do you see now how the 3/4-turn punch might leave you more vulnerable than the horizontal punch or the corkscrew punch would?
In terms of biomechanics, the 3/4-turn punch does cause the bones of your forearm and your first two knuckles to align. Again, it's not super important that those bones align in terms of avoiding damage to your wrists or the bones of your hand. Punching a heavy bag will condition you to punch in any way without hurting yourself. And if the argument is that you can avoid hurting yourself even if you're not conditioned by utilizing this 3/4-turn punch, the answer is no. You will get hurt no matter what, so long as you're not conditioning yourself to punch.
Okinawan karate also adds a dipping motion to the first two knuckles that krav-maga does not. But you can only do that motion when you're doing a karate style lunge punch down the center of your opponent through his torso, rather than punching to the face. It's a very penetrating punch.
Now here's what I think. It's my judgment that boxing has the best understanding and application of punching of pretty much any martial art or self-defense system. They take a very dynamic and realistic approach to it. They're not just looking at power. They're looking at the entire game. I think one year in a boxing gym, going 2 to 3 times a week would give you a better understanding of punching than krav-maga would give you in decades of training. Or at the very least, you would find it complements your krav-maga style and gives you a base you can use for performing other krav-maga skills. My opinion, anyway.
What I hope you walk away with after reading this is that there's a lot more to punching than just biomechanical structure. Above all else, put it to the test. See how it does in the ring and on a heavy bag. And speaking of that heavy bag, you need to be hitting it hard in order to condition your body to punch for real, or else it won't matter how technically perfect your punch is.
Hope that helps.
| https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/12928 |
martialarts | Why do fencers point their back foot to the side in the en garde position? |
I would expect that given fencing's linear nature, it would be more advantageous to angle the back foot more forward to push off. Why does the foot point off to the side in the basic stance?
| VQAonline_00023547.png | Mainly for versatility and stability. In fencing your actions moving backwards are just as important as your actions moving forwards. A lot of people think of it as advancing on your opponent or retreating from them, but the point of those things isn't to capture or cede strip, it is to open and close distance.
When you're fencing, you know your range and you know where you're most effective. When you're new, you only know these things for perfect control and balance situations. As you get better and more experienced, you also start to get a sense of where those points are during motion and in situations of imbalance. At that point, what direction you're moving matters much less than whether the space between you and your opponent is opening, closing, or static. And your opponent is trying to do the same thing. So you're both trying to manage optimum distance at the same time. Micro changes in direction and pace are really really important.
If your foot is turned too far forwards, while it favors forward motion, it doesn't provide any stability in terms of quick changes of direction. If your foot is turned too far backwards, you just fall over.
Posting guidelines says "Share your research" - I've been a fencer since 1985, competitive on the national level since 1990. I have taught beginners for most of that time.
| https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/6701 |
martialarts | To what extent does height give an advantage in any type of fight? | Last month Sylvester Stallone posted this picture in Twitter with the caption: Just in case you forgot how tall Ivan Drago is. The man was a walking eclipse.
So I was thinking to what extent does height give an advantage to an individual in Boxing, Kung Fu, Takewondo or any other martial arts? For example if a 6ft 5 inch Ivan Drago would fight against a 5ft 8 inch Rocky Balboa how much advantage does the extra 7 or 8 inch gives to Ivan Drago?
| VQAonline_00023537.png | Height gives a considerable advantage to striking martial arts. The first and most obvious advantage is that height means you can reach out further than your opponent, meaning you can hit him before he hits you.
But there are other advantages that you don't immediately consider:
If you have to punch upwards towards a taller opponent's head, you don't punch quite as hard as if you were punching straight. That's because you can't put the full force of your body behind the punch. You can still generate force with your legs though.
A taller opponent can more easily kick you in the face without needing great flexibility.
Longer arms and legs mean that your hooks and hooking kicks have a LOT more impact. It's science.
being taller means that your opponent will have a hard time getting his leg above yours. You'll see especially in Taekwondo that kicks are blocked simply by lifting up your knee. It's very frustrating trying to kick someone in the face when they can lift their knee up to your chin.
Some disadvantages to being taller than your opponent:
given the same weight class, the shorter fighter will be stronger and therefore his punches will be harder given the same technique.
the shorter the arm or leg, the quicker the strike.
if you're much taller, it will be difficult to "work the body" of your opponent.
| https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/5087 |
martialarts | What is the name of the side-turn defense in Capoeira? | It's the motion at the 3 second to 4 second mark here where the capoeiristra pivots so that their side faces their opponent and they're sitting back a bit. It's often done before a Queixada, particularly since it works well for a partner drill where capoeiristras trade kicks, using this defense to avoid the incoming kick while setting up for the next, but I've also seen it suggested as a defense against a Bênção or Chapa (moving back from the attack while potentially moving to the side of it) or against a more lateral attack by turning your back to it, either catching the kick along the flat of the back to reduce its force (and because the back is not a valid target in the roda, thus negating the hit) or to facilitate ducking under it.
The description in the above-linked article is:
From the base position of the ginga, with one leg pointed backward, shift the chest in an orthogonal line to the opponent, turning on the two feet; bend the legs at the knee, sitting on the pelvis (a straight leg can be an easy target, and it hurts bad).
When stepping into the movement, I've often seen it described as Entrada. When I was studying in Philadelphia, Mestre Doutor had a name for it, which I think might have rhymed with "Queixada" because I remember him prompting the moves and I remember the two going together, which could match with it being Entrada other than that sounds backwards since you're retreating, not entering.
Ah, and I have found one pictorial reference. It's the first two steps, here depicted as the setup for a Queixada courtesy of this site:
| VQAonline_00023551.png | I was unable to get ahold of my instructor from Philadelphia, but I did get an answer from one of his senior assistants who said that they always just taught that pivot as the wind-up for the queixada and that there was no distinct name for it.
Yes, it's queixada. It's strange to read the technical description. [The] esquiva is part of the queixada. The textbook doesn't do it justice. I need to see it.
I have since found a YouTube video which refers to this movement as quebrada ("ravine"), which matches the rhyming scheme I remember. What may have been throwing me off is that it involves a more bent position than the example images I provided above.
| https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/7065 |
materials | The format and values provided by Basis Set Exchange | In this question and answers, I found that Basis Set Exchange provides information about the orbitals (e.g., the orbital exponents and contraction coefficients). For example, the following example is orbital data of the oxygen:
However, I cannot understand the details about these values and meanings; specifically I have three questions as follows.
I understood that first 6 lines show 6 orbital exponent values and 6 contraction coefficient values in 6-31; however, each line of next 3 and 1 parts has "one" orbital exponent value and "two" contraction coefficient values. Why does one orbital have two coefficients?
I believe that the oxygen orbital has 4 kinds of orbitals (i.e., 2s, 2px, 2py, and 2pz), but I cannot understand which value corresponds to 2s and which value corresponds to 2px.
Postscript using a concrete example.
1. They are Pople-type basis set. Namely, s and p have the same exponents but different contraction coefficients. Hence, one set of exponents, two sets of coefficients. (Maybe format Gaussian somehow looks clearer) 2. Px/Py/Pz have the same coef and exp.
Thank you for this comment from Lancashire3000. I add the following example for describing my confusing. I believe that "31" of 2px in the 6-31G basis set can be written (but omit the spherical harmonics) as:
$\phi_{2px} = \sum_{i=1}^3 d_i \exp(-\zeta_i r^2) + d_4 \exp(-\zeta_4 r^2)$.
So, if px, py, pz have the same exp and coef, totally we have four exponents, $\zeta_1, \zeta_2, \zeta_3, \zeta_4$, and four coefficients, $d_1, d_2, d_3, d_4$. But the Basis Set Exchange file provides two contraction coefficients in each one; **that is, we seem to have $d_1, d'_1, d_2, d'_2, d_3, d'_3, d_4, d'_4$.
$d$ is for the s orbital and $d'$ is for the px, py, pz orbitals?
| VQAonline_00023668.png |
"I understood that first 6 lines show 6 orbital exponent values and 6 contraction coefficient values in 6-31; however, each line of next 3 and 1 parts has "one" orbital exponent value and "two" contraction coefficient values. Why does one orbital have two coefficients?"
When it becomes confusing to figure out what's going on in a basis set, I find it useful to look at the same basis set in other formats.
The CFOUR / ACESII / MRCC format for that same basis set looks like this:
O:6-31G(d,p)
6-31G + polarization on all atoms
3
0 1 2
3 2 1
10 4 1
0.5484671660D+04 0.8252349460D+03 0.1880469580D+03 0.5296450000D+02 0.1689757040D+02
0.1553961625D+02 0.5799635340D+01 0.3599933586D+01 0.1013761750D+01 0.2700058226D+00
0.1831074430D-02 0.0000000000D+00 0.00000000
0.1395017220D-01 0.0000000000D+00 0.00000000
0.6844507810D-01 0.0000000000D+00 0.00000000
0.2327143360D+00 0.0000000000D+00 0.00000000
0.4701928980D+00 0.0000000000D+00 0.00000000
0.0000000000D+00 -0.1107775495D+00 0.00000000
0.3585208530D+00 0.0000000000D+00 0.00000000
0.0000000000D+00 -0.1480262627D+00 0.00000000
0.0000000000D+00 0.1130767015D+01 0.00000000
0.0000000000D+00 0.0000000000D+00 0.1000000000D+01
0.1553961625D+02 0.3599933586D+01 0.1013761750D+01 0.2700058226D+00
0.7087426823D-01 0.00000000
0.3397528391D+00 0.00000000
0.7271585773D+00 0.00000000
0.0000000000D+00 0.1000000000D+01
0.8000000000D+00
1.0000000
You can see here that all four of the P-type functions have the same exponents as the L-type functions in your version, and both versions show two "contraction coefficients" for each of these exponents, but in my version one contraction coefficient for each of these exponents is always zero, meaning that there's only ever one non-zero contraction coefficient for each exponent here.
"I believe that the oxygen orbital has 4 kinds of orbitals (i.e., 2s, 2px, 2py, and 2pz), but I cannot understand which value corresponds to 2s and which value corresponds to 2px."
Notice that the first column says "S", "L", and "D". The "L" in your case represents "SP" which just means that there's an S-type function with the given parameters, and a P-type function with the same parameters. In my version of the basis set, I've explained how to find the S-type and P-type functions in my answer to your recent post here: The orbital exponent in Gaussian. Examine the following part:
0 1 2
3 2 1
10 4 1
This means that:
For S-type functions (L=0), we have 10 exponents and 3 contractions.
For P-type functions (L=1), we have 4 exponents and 2 contractions, and
For D-type functions (L=2), we have 1 exponent and 1 contraction.
You are then given the S-type exponents followed by the S-type contraction coefficients then the P-type exponents (0.1553961625D+02 0.3599933586D+01 0.1013761750D+01 0.2700058226D+00) followed by their contraction coefficients, etc. You can then match these four P-type exponents and their corresponding contraction coefficients with the ones in your version of the basis set.
| https://materials.stackexchange.com/questions/8294 |
materials | What is the meaning of element-rich environment in calculating formation energy? | I want to use the formation energy formula used by the article in the picture below. The authors have used the term S or Sn-rich environment. What is the meaning of this? How it is related to the calculation of formation energy?
Reference paper : https://doi.org/10.1063/1.5022151
| VQAonline_00023639.png | How rich the environment is in $\ce{Sn}$ vs $\ce{S}$ affects the chemical potential $\mu_\ce{Sn}$ as described in Section IIIA of the linked paper:
... $\mu_\ce{Sn}$ for the Sn-rich environment is equal to $E_\ce{Sn}$, where $E_\ce{Sn}$ is the total energy of Sn per atom in the diamond crystal structure.
... $\mu_\ce{Sn}$ can be calculated for the S-rich
environment as $\mu_\ce{Sn}= E_\ce{SnS}-E_\ce{S}$.
(Note $E_\ce{SnS}$ and $E_\ce{S}$ in the quote above are the energy per formula unit and atom respectively).
As your image shows, the formation energy depends on $\mu_\ce{Sn}$, so it also depends on how rich the environment is in $\ce{Sn}$ vs $\ce{S}$.
Richness here is just referring to how abundant a given element is in the surroundings. This won't change the simulations of the monolayer, but it does affect the formation energy. This is because in an Sn-rich environment, you are not just producing a lone Sn atom when you remove it from SnS. Rather, you are implicitly incorporating it into bulk metallic Sn, which has different energetics. For an S-rich environment, they assume the Sn is instead producing a site of SnS at the expense of a site from bulk S. So depending on the environment, the overall formation process is different.
If you aren't concerned about the environment effects, you could use the same definition for the chemical potential as was used for the doping transition metal (e.g. the energy of one isolated atom). They actually do this earlier in the linked paper, where they compute vacancy formation energies for SnS either using the environment affected chemical potentials or just the energy of a lone atom.
| https://materials.stackexchange.com/questions/4730 |
materials | Define a geometry region using 'for' loop in MuMax3 | I was trying to define regions using a 'for' loop.
Please find the regions:
defregion(0, xrange(-1024e-9, -964e-9))
defregion(1, xrange(-964e-9, -844e-9))
defregion(2, xrange(-844e-9, -784e-9))
defregion(3, xrange(-784e-9, -664e-9))
defregion(4, xrange(-664e-9, -604e-9))
defregion(5, xrange(-604e-9, -484e-9))
...
Here, the periodicity is w1=60e-9, and w2=120e-9.
So I was trying to define the regions using a loop like in the following way:
l=1024e-9
w1=60e-9
w2=120e-9
for i := 0; i <= 5; i+=2 {
defregion(i, xrange(-l+i*w2, -l+(i+1)*w1));
for j:=i+1; j<= 5; j+=1{
defregion(j, xrange(-l+j*w1, -l+(j+1)*w2))
}
}
In this case, the software forms the geometry only with the w1 value. The w2 value is not taken.
However, the required geometry has not been formed.
Could anyone please let me know where I am wrong and how to solve this problem?
I have tried with the following solution (got it from the first answer!)
l=1024e-9
w1=60e-9
w2=120e-9
for i := 0; i <= 5; i+=2 {
defregion(i, xrange(-l+i*w2, -l+(i+1)*w1));
for j:=i+1; j<= 5; j+=1{
defregion(j, xrange(-l+j*w1, -l+(j+1)*w2))
}
}
And, the error looks like this:
| VQAonline_00023655.png | I have not used MuMax3 before, so I may be missing something, but I think you are overcomplicating things by trying to use a nested loop. It looks like you define a region in one loop and then redefine in another iteration, so its tough to reason out what values you will get.
Running the equivalent of your loops in Python, I get
0 (-1.024e-06, -9.64e-07)
1 (-9.64e-07, -7.84e-07)
2 (-7.84e-07, -8.440000000000001e-07)
3 (-8.440000000000001e-07, -5.440000000000001e-07)
4 (-5.440000000000001e-07, -7.240000000000001e-07)
5 (-7.240000000000001e-07, -3.040000000000002e-07)
I believe you could instead use a single loop to get the result you want.
l:=1024e-9
w1:=60e-9
w2:=120e-9
start:=0
stop:=0
swap:=0
for i := 0; i <= 5; i+=1 {
stop=stop+w1
defregion(i, xrange(-l+start, -l+stop));
swap=w1
w1=w2
w2=swap
start=start+w2
}
The start and stop store how much you should add to the initial value to get the next interval. At each iteration, w1 and w2 are swapped so that the beginning and end of each region increase by the correct amount, which alternates.
Initially, my answer used = everywhere rather than :=. It seems, based on the examples I could find on the MuMax3 page, that = is used to set options for the program or redefine existing variables while := is used for user created variable assignment.
| https://materials.stackexchange.com/questions/6502 |
materials | Basics of numerical energy minimization techniques used in molecular dynamics? | The question below describes my plan to make a basic molecular dynamics calculation using a Python script rather than a canned, self-contained program.
There seems to be three parts:
a model of the honeycomb net and substrate atoms
an expression for energy based on atomic positions
an energy minimization procedure (the topic of this question)
The two procedures I can imagine implementing are
Monte-carlo method jiggle the positions randomly using some pseudo-temperature parameter, keep the new positions if energy goes down and flip a coin about keeping the new positions if higher based on *how much higher) it is.
Kinematically using a damped differential equation and a standard ODE solver for all atomic positions.
These are general tools that I'm aware of and know how to implement in general and I can start with these no problem. But are these the numerical techniques that proper classical molecular dynamical simulations use, or are there different and/or better ways?
References:
DIY molecular dynamics for Xenes on crystal surfaces; where can I get applicable open-source force field parameters that I can use in my scripts?
My nascent DIY model, from here (click for larger)
| VQAonline_00023678.png | AFAIK most MD codes do something like conjugate gradients or BFGS for energy minimization. Your option 1 is Metropolis Monte Carlo, while option 2 sounds like the FIRE algorithm.
However, why implement something yourself, when there is a multitude of solvers already available in e.g. scipy? See https://docs.scipy.org/doc/scipy/reference/generated/scipy.optimize.minimize.html, for example.
You could just interface to these routines and get a lot of functionality "for free"?
| https://materials.stackexchange.com/questions/8760 |
materials | Fermi level change in surfaces with adsorbed molecules | In a DFT standard calculation of a solid 3D material (i.e. bulk metal), one of the properties that can be obtained is the Fermi level $E_F$. This feature is related with the required work to add an electron to this material.
In organic electronics, one possible utility of that value is to extract information about the charge-transfer properties of such material when it is contacted by a single molecule or even a molecular layer (organic semiconductor), thus obtaining the interfacial properties of the complete junction. As the orbitals of both entities tend to hybridize, the properties of the modified surface can be radically different from those of the initial isolated materials. This is particularly critical when either or both of the materials are magnetic, in which case it is called Spinterface.
In this context, some question arises. Which is the most adequate way of calculating a molecular surface on top of a metal? How to account on rearrangement of atomic positions, image-charge properties and orbital hybridization? and last but not least, How to model a descriptive molecular surface in which different molecules can be arranged in different positions?
| VQAonline_00023598.png | The work function is surface-dependent, and sensitive to surface reconstructions and passivation, amongst other things. The Fermi level of the infinite bulk material would be a rather crude proxy for the workfunction.
You also need to be aware that the Fermi level as computed in most periodic DFT codes is calculated with respect to an arbitrary pseudopotential-dependent reference energy, not a "zero vacuum level", so you would need to correct for this. Essentially, the DFT eigenenergies (and hence the Fermi energy) are computed with respect to the mean electrostatic potential in the simulation cell, and this includes a contribution from the local part of the pseudopotential. Adding a molecule to the surface in a periodic simulation is actually adding an infinite, periodic array of molecules and this changes the mean electrostatic potential (in addition to any actual physical or chemical phenomena).
| https://materials.stackexchange.com/questions/428 |
materials | SCF Calculation not converging after two decimal places in Quantum ESPRESSO | I have been trying to do geometrical optimization for ZnSe Quantum Dots using Quantum ESPRESSO.
The convergence is very slow, so slow that even after 200 iterations I could not get convergence. I tried reducing mixing_beta to 0.3 like it says in the manual for QE(things got worse) and then I tried raising it to 0.8, this actually gave better results. Raising the cutoff energy also did not have much effect.
The weird thing is that once one decimal place is obtained it just keeps going a bit up and down not being able to converge the next digits easily. I think this could be solved by reducing the step size in the algorithm, is that somehow possible?
Convergence graph(energy)
Input file
&CONTROL
calculation = "relax"
forc_conv_thr = 1.00000e-03
max_seconds = 1.72800e+05
nstep = 100
outdir = ".\outdir"
prefix = "me"
pseudo_dir = "C:\Users\aman\.burai\.pseudopot"
/
&SYSTEM
a = 2.50000e+01
b = 2.50000e+01
c = 2.50000e+01
degauss = 1.00000e-02
ecutrho = 2.49895e+02
ecutwfc = 2.75032e+01
ibrav = 8
nat = 44
ntyp = 2
occupations = "fixed"
smearing = "gaussian"
/
&ELECTRONS
conv_thr = 1.00000e-06
electron_maxstep = 200
mixing_beta = 8.00000e-01
startingpot = "atomic"
startingwfc = "atomic+random"
/
&IONS
ion_dynamics = "bfgs"
/
&CELL
/
K_POINTS {gamma}
ATOMIC_SPECIES
Zn 65.39000 Zn.pbe-van.UPF
Se 78.96000 Se.pbe-n-rrkjus_psl.1.0.0.UPF
ATOMIC_POSITIONS {angstrom}
Zn 7.349204 5.983991 13.367822
Zn 11.402731 13.004906 13.367822
Zn 7.349204 5.983991 6.705404
Zn 11.402731 13.004906 6.705404
Zn 13.429495 11.834754 10.036613
Zn 9.375968 4.813839 10.036613
Zn 5.322440 9.494449 13.367822
Zn 9.375967 9.494448 13.367822
Zn 7.349204 13.004906 13.367822
Zn 5.322440 9.494449 6.705404
Zn 9.375967 9.494448 6.705404
Zn 7.349204 13.004906 6.705404
Zn 15.456259 8.324296 10.036613
Zn 11.402731 8.324296 10.036613
Zn 13.429494 4.813839 10.036613
Zn 13.429495 9.494449 13.367822
Zn 11.402731 5.983991 13.367822
Zn 13.429495 9.494449 6.705404
Zn 11.402731 5.983991 6.705404
Zn 5.322440 11.834754 10.036613
Zn 7.349204 8.324296 10.036613
Zn 9.375968 11.834754 10.036613
Se 13.429495 11.834754 5.868711
Se 9.375968 4.813839 5.868711
Se 7.349204 5.983991 9.199920
Se 11.402731 13.004906 9.199920
Se 13.429495 11.834754 12.531128
Se 9.375968 4.813839 12.531128
Se 11.402731 8.324296 5.868711
Se 9.375967 9.494448 15.862337
Se 5.322440 9.494449 9.199920
Se 9.375967 9.494448 9.199920
Se 7.349204 13.004906 9.199920
Se 15.456259 8.324296 12.531128
Se 11.402731 8.324296 12.531128
Se 13.429494 4.813839 12.531128
Se 7.349204 8.324296 5.868711
Se 9.375968 11.834754 5.868711
Se 15.456259 5.983991 9.199920
Se 13.429495 9.494449 9.199920
Se 11.402731 5.983991 9.199920
Se 5.322440 11.834754 12.531128
Se 7.349204 8.324296 12.531128
Se 9.375968 11.834754 12.531128
Any other advice on convergence is also very much optimized, Thanks!
P.S the structure is neutral and I don't think there is anything wrong with the structure.
| VQAonline_00023647.png | My suggestion is that you first get an SCF calculation to converge for this structure before you try relaxing, especially if you aren't sure what you're going to get. Then you can proceed to converging the numerical settings like the cutoff energies for your properties of interest.
I was able to get an SCF calculation to converge using your input file by switching the occupations = "smearing" instead of "fixed". It seems like this may have been what you intended based on your choices for "smearing" and "degauss", which seem to be ignored if you have occupations = "fixed".
| https://materials.stackexchange.com/questions/6209 |
materials | How to use wavefunctions/density to determine which orbitals lead to edge states? | I have a large matrix for a 1D zigzag edge model of an otherwise $3\times 3$ tight-binding Hamiltonian (3 basis functions, each corresponding to an atomic orbital), involving the variable $k_x$. The large matrix contains blocks of this $3\times 3$ Hamiltonian for each unit cell involved (I chose 100 unit cells).
For different values of $k_x$, I numerically calculate eigenvalues and eigenvectors, and use the eigenvalues to plot the band structure shown below:
How do I identify which of the three orbitals the edge states are coming from, by using the numerical wavefunctions or otherwise?
What I've done so far: I used the following (HIGHLY INEFFICIENT) Python code to identify the indices of eigenvalues where the bands approximately cross. I was hoping to use this to find the eigenvectors corresponding to the point, and then identify which orbitals the edge states are coming from. My rationale is that the probability will suddenly jump to something else (or switch between bands) when the bands cross. I guess my biggest confusion is that I do not know which eigenvectors to choose, nor what they mean. That is, if my original matrix is tridiagonal, with $3\times 3$ blocks making up the system, what bases do the resulting eigenvectors have? In the case of energy eigenstates in just momentum space, I understand that each eigenvector corresponds to an energy wavefunction. But now I have the added complication of several unit cells.
find_evec_with_energy = 1; # crossing occurs around here
tol = 0.02
rows,cols = np.asarray(energies).shape # for each iteration of kx, I append the eigenvalues into the list called 'energies'
indices = []
for j in range(rows):
for k in range(cols):
if np.abs(np.asarray(energies)[j,k]-find_evec_with_energy)<tol:
indices.append(f"{j},{k}")
print("row,column of eigenvalue with desired energy")
print(indices)
Then, I guess I take choose the eigenvector corresponding to one of these indices, and then plot each triplet of rows, squared? I'm not sure.
n = 75 # index of unit cell where band crossing occurs??
wavefunction = evecs[:,n]
up,middle,down = wavefunction[::3],wavefunction[1::3],wavefunction[2::3]
plt.plot(np.abs(up)**2)
plt.show()
Sorry if this is a basic question, but I am only now starting to learn real-space material systems. Thanks.
P.S. I'm not sure what tags to use.
EDIT: updated code:
First, loop over various momenta and get eigenvectors and eigenvalues:
energies = []
evecs = []
W = 100
for i in range(v_segs):
ham = H(vary_range[i],W)
ev,evc = np.linalg.eigh(ham)
energies.append(ev)
evecs.append(evc)
Then, find indices of energies near band crossing:
find_evec_with_energy = 1; # crossing occurs around here
tol = 0.02
rows,cols = np.array(energies).shape
print(rows)
print(cols)
indices = []
for j in range(rows):
for k in range(cols):
if np.abs(np.array(energies)[j,k]-find_evec_with_energy)<tol:
indices.append([j,k])
print("row,column of eigenvalue with desired energy")
print(indices) # outputs [[12, 100], [87, 100]]
Finally, try to find orbitals involved in band crossing:
def find_orbitals(index): #n is the row we want
ik,iband = index
wavefunction = np.array(evecs)[ik,:,iband]
w = wavefunction.conj() * wavefunction
up,middle,down = w[::3],w[1::3],w[2::3]
print(f"up,middle,down at index {index}")
tol = 0.01
if np.allclose(middle, 0, atol=tol):
print("edge states from up,down")
else:
print("not middle")
if np.allclose(up, 0, atol=tol):
print("edge states from middle,down")
else:
print("not up")
if np.allclose(down, 0, atol=tol):
print("edge states from up,middle")
else:
print("not down")
plt.plot(np.abs(up)**2)
plt.show()
plt.plot(np.abs(mid)**2)
plt.show()
plt.plot(np.abs(down)**2)
plt.show()
#list_of_indices = indices#[[12,100],[87,100]]
list_of_indices = [[12,100],[87,100]]
for q in range(len(list_of_indices)):
find_orbitals(list_of_indices[q])
| VQAonline_00023648.png | One way of determining this is using the projected density of states (P-DOS)
This resolves the DOS into specific orbitals thereby allowing you to discretize each orbitals weight for a specific energy.
$
\mathrm{PDOS}_\nu(E) = \sum_i \psi^*_{i,\nu} [\mathbf S | \psi_{i}\rangle]_\nu D(E-\epsilon_i)
$
Note here that $|\psi_i\rangle$ is the $i$th eigenvector and $\nu$ is the orbital index. The overlap matrix $\mathbf S$ is here for generality but for orthogonal basis it is the identity matrix, and finally $D(E)$ is the distribution function, Gaussian, Lorentzian etc.
The following analysis depends on what you want to figure out. If you are only interested in the weight of a given orbital for a given eigenstate, then doing $\psi^*_{i,\nu}|\mathbf S|\psi_i\rangle$ would give you the vector that gives you the weight for each orbital.
If you want this across the entire Brillouin zone you have to integrate over that, $\sum_k w_k \mathrm{PDOS}_\nu(E)$.
So here it seems your Python code is almost complete. You'll just want to sum the contribution for each block orbitals to get the full picture. Generally one may then plot the so-called fatbands which is basically the PDOS on top of the band-structure.
Note that the energy dependence on the P-DOS is not necessary if you are not interested in energy-resolved quantities.
If you want to track the eigenvectors in the Brillouin zone I would suggest you to sort according to the eigenvectors that resemble each other the most (besides a common phase-factor).
I.e. something like $\langle \psi_j|\mathbf S|\psi_i\rangle e^{i\theta}$ where $\theta$ should be optimized to maximize the overlap between the states.
PS. It isn't totally clear to me what exactly you want to describe. Whether the PDOS is enough or whether you want some band-unfolding procedure isn't totally clear to me.
Also, are you using the same small 3-orbital Hamiltonian repeated 100 times along one direction? This wouldn't be the best method.
EDIT: I have understood your question like this, you want to figure out how the edge states are dispersed across the orbitals in the system. And possibly which of the 3 orbitals (from the primary cell) have the largest contribution to the edge states.
I would suggest you start with a smaller system, say a width = 8 or less system such that the bands are easier to distinguish. Using a width of 100 only makes the spaghetti band-structure more difficult.
Since you already know which state is the edge-state I suggest you do as you first suggested. Have a specific index for the edge-state, then at some band-crossing (happening at a specific $k$) and do your PDOS like this. No need to complicate things if not necessary. :)
| https://materials.stackexchange.com/questions/6214 |
math | Is there any way to determine $\mathrm{Arg}[ \Gamma(ix) ]$? | Fixing some real $x>0$, there is a result which says that:
$$
|\Gamma(ix)| \ = \ \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{\sqrt{x\sinh(\pi x)}}
$$
So this means the following:
$$
\Gamma(ix) \ = \ \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{\sqrt{x\sinh(\pi x)}} e^{i \mathrm{Arg}\left[ \Gamma(ix) \right]}
$$
Is there any way to determine $\mathrm{Arg}\left[ \Gamma(ix) \right]$? What properties does this function have? I've included a plot of the function, and there are a bunch of discontinuities for this function.
| VQAonline_00035443.png | $\newcommand{\bbx}[1]{\,\bbox[15px,border:1px groove navy]{\displaystyle{#1}}\,}
\newcommand{\braces}[1]{\left\lbrace\,{#1}\,\right\rbrace}
\newcommand{\bracks}[1]{\left\lbrack\,{#1}\,\right\rbrack}
\newcommand{\dd}{\mathrm{d}}
\newcommand{\ds}[1]{\displaystyle{#1}}
\newcommand{\expo}[1]{\,\mathrm{e}^{#1}\,}
\newcommand{\ic}{\mathrm{i}}
\newcommand{\mc}[1]{\mathcal{#1}}
\newcommand{\mrm}[1]{\mathrm{#1}}
\newcommand{\pars}[1]{\left(\,{#1}\,\right)}
\newcommand{\partiald}[3][]{\frac{\partial^{#1} #2}{\partial #3^{#1}}}
\newcommand{\root}[2][]{\,\sqrt[#1]{\,{#2}\,}\,}
\newcommand{\totald}[3][]{\frac{\mathrm{d}^{#1} #2}{\mathrm{d} #3^{#1}}}
\newcommand{\verts}[1]{\left\vert\,{#1}\,\right\vert}$
\begin{align}
\Gamma\pars{\ic x} & =
{\Gamma\pars{1 + \ic x} \over \ic x} =
-\,{\ic \over x}\int_{0}^{\infty}t^{\ic x}\expo{-t}\dd t =
-\,{\ic \over x}\int_{0}^{\infty}\expo{\ic x\ln\pars{t}}\expo{-t}\dd t
\\[5mm] & =
-\,{\ic \over x}\int_{0}^{\infty}
\bracks{\cos\pars{x\ln\pars{t}} + \ic\sin\pars{x\ln\pars{t}}}\expo{-t}\dd t
\end{align}
$$
\bbx{\arg\pars{\Gamma\pars{\ic x}} =
-\arctan\pars{\ds{\int_{0}^{\infty}
\cos\pars{x\ln\pars{t}}\expo{-t}\dd t} \over
\ds{\int_{0}^{\infty}
\sin\pars{x\ln\pars{t}}\expo{-t}\dd t}}}
$$
| https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2716308 |
math | Expectation of Uniform Distributions | Given $X = \operatorname{Uniform}(0, 4)$ distribution where the distribution is continuous.
Using the definition for $\operatorname E(X)$
\begin{align}
& \operatorname E(X) \\[10pt]
= {} & \int_{-\infty}^\infty xP(X\in dx) \\[10pt]
= {} & \int_{-\infty}^\infty xf(x)\,dx \\[10pt]
= {} & \int_{-\infty}^\infty x\frac 1 {4-0} \, dx \\[10pt]
= {} & \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac 1 4 x \, dx \\[10pt]
= {} & \text{undefined?}
\end{align}
But the textbook is like $E(X)=\frac{a+b}{2} = \frac{0+4}{2}$ ?
Definition of $E(X)$ for continous distributions:
| VQAonline_00035297.png | The density is $f(x) = \begin{cases} \dfrac 1 4 & \text{if } 0<x<4, \\ \\ 0 & \text{otherwise}. \end{cases}$
Therefore
\begin{align}
\int_{-\infty}^\infty xf(x) \, dx = \int_{-\infty}^0 x\cdot0\,dx + \int_0^4 x\cdot\frac 1 4\, dx + \int_4^\infty x\cdot0\,dx.
\end{align}
You should never write $\text{“}{= \text{undefined.''}}$ You should say that something is undefined, not that it is equal to something called "undefined". This is the "is" of predication, not the "is" of equality.
| https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2681735 |
math | How are linked rings homeomorphic to seperated links? | I'm currently reading "Geometry, Topology and Physics" by Mikio Nakahara. In his book there the following exercise:
Show that two figure in figure 2.109(b) [see below] are homeomorphic to each other. Find how to unlink the right figure in $ \mathbb{R}^4$.
The figure in question is:
I have no idea how to tackle this problem. I guess I need to show that every point in space is in the same equivalence class, but I don't know how one would do that.
Any hint for me to get started on this problem are much appreciated.
| VQAonline_00027096.png | Note that these are two questions.
One is to show that the two figures are homeomorphic. This is trivial: just take a homeomorphism from one ring on the left to one ring on the right and an homeomorphism from the other ring on the left to the other ring on the right. Combine those two homeomorphism to a map from the two rings on the left to the two rings on the right; that's an homeomorphism as well. It is important to realize that the ambient space (the ${\mathbb R}^3$) doesn't play a role!
The other question is to argue that there is a homotopy $[0,1] \times (S^1 \sqcup S^1) \to {\mathbb R}^4$ such that (the image of) $(0,-,-) \colon (S^1 \sqcup S^1) \to {\mathbb R}^4$ is the left rings and (the image of) $(1,-,-) \colon S^1 \sqcup S^1 \to {\mathbb R}^4$ is the right rings. Assuming the left and right rings are really embedded in ${\mathbb R}^3 \times \{0\}$, use the 4th coordinate to lift one of the two rings in the figure on the left to the $(-,-,-,1)$ plane; then move it over to the location of the corresponding ring in the figure on the right; then move it back to the $(-,-,-,0)$ plane.
| https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/730669 |
math | How find this minimum of the value of $n$( 2013 china Mathematical olympiad simulation test ) |
Let $S=\{1,2,3,\cdots,n\}$. Find the minimum of positive integer $n$, such that for any partition of $S$ into $A$ and $B$,
$$A\cap B =\emptyset,A\cup B=S$$
then at least one of the subsets $A$ or $B$ must have two different elements $a,b$, such that
$$a+b\mid ab$$
and This problem is from this
I have consider sometimes,and this problem don't have solution,I hope someone can help,Thank you
my try:
let Gcd$(a,b)=d$,then
$$a=a_{1}d,b=b_{1},gcd(a_{1},a_{2})=1$$
since
$$(a+b)|ab$$
then we have
$$(a_{1}+b_{1})|(a_{1}b_{1}d)$$
since
$$(a_{1}+b_{1},a_{1})=(a_{1}+b_{1},b_{1})=(a_{1},b_{1})=1$$
so
$$(a+b)|ab\Longleftrightarrow (a_{1}+b_{1})|d$$
so let $d=k(a_{1}+b_{1})$.
so
$$a=ka_{1}(a_{1}+b_{1}),b=kb_{1}(a_{1}+b_{1})$$
Then I can't,Thank you for you can help.Thank you very much.
and I have found there is same problem; there is China National Olympiad 1996 problem 2: can see this： http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/Forum/viewtopic.php?p=1507766&sid=e25e6454134749f7426ce808796903b4#p1507766
| VQAonline_00026384.png | Begin from your characterisation, $$a=ka_1(a_1+b_1), b=kb_1(a_1+b_1)$$
First observe that if $n$ satisfies the given property, so does any $m \geq n$.
It turns out (after some trial and error) that $n=40$ is minimal. It then suffices to show that $n=40$ works, and $n=39$ does not.
We thus only concern ourselves with $a, b \leq 40$. We may WLOG assume $a<b$, so $a_1<b_1$. Note that we want $40 \geq b=kb_1(a_1+b_1) \geq (1)(b_1)(1+b_1)$ so $b_1 \leq 5$.
$a_1=1, b_1=2: (3, 6), (6, 12), (9, 18), (12, 24), (15, 30), (18, 36)$
$a_1=1, b_1=3: (4, 12), (8, 24), (12, 36)$
$a_1=2, b_1=3:(10, 15), (20, 30)$
$a_1=1, b_1=4: (5, 20), (10, 40)$
$a_1=3, b_1=4: (21, 28)$
$a_1=1, b_1=5: (6, 30)$
$a_1=2, b_1=5: (14, 35)$
$a_1=3, b_1=5: (24, 40)$
Consider $n \geq 40$, and assume on the contrary that there is a partition of $S$ into $A, B$ such that neither $A$ nor $B$ have two elements $a, b$ s.t. $a+b|ab$. Then WLOG assume $3 \in A$. Thus
$$3 \in A \Rightarrow 6 \in B \Rightarrow 12 \in A \Rightarrow 24 \in B \Rightarrow 40 \in A \Rightarrow 10 \in B \Rightarrow 15 \in A \Rightarrow 30 \in B \Rightarrow 6 \in A$$
We thus get a contradiction.
Therefore $n=40$ has the desired property.
Finally $n=39$ fails by the following partition:
$$A=\{4, 6, 9, 15, 20, 24, 28, 35, 36\}, B=S\setminus A=\{1, 2, \ldots , 39\} \setminus A$$
Thus $n=40$ is minimal.
| https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/570615 |
math | Solutions of $x^2 = x + 1$ in $\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$ | In a stage preceding the national stage of the math olympiad in Romania ( which was held online because of the pandemic ) the following question was asked:
If $A$ is the set of natural numbers $n$ for which $x^2=x+1$ has only a solution in $\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$ then:
A) $A$ has no elements
B) $A$ has only one element
C) The elements of $A$ are even
D) $A$ has infinitely many elements
E) ( I can't remember it ).
The oficial answer was that $A$ has only one element but when I wrote a bit of code I found $5$, $46985$, $47209$ and more to be in $A$.
Can you help me characterise the numbers in $A$ a little bit more?
Edit:
| VQAonline_00041589.png | If $n=p_1^{r_1}\ldots p_m^{r_m}$ then by Chinese Remainder theorem, the solution is unique $\pmod n\iff$ unique $\pmod{p_i^{r_i}}$ for every $i$. This in particular implies the solution is unique $\pmod{p_i}$.
First, we do the case when $n=p$ is prime. Obviously $p=2$ doesn't work. For other cases, we are now in a field with characteristic not $2$, so we can use the quadratic formula (being in a field guarantees we can factor into two linear factors; characteristic not 2 guarantees we can divide by 2). If there were to be a solution, the discriminant $\Delta=5$ must be a square. For it to be unique, $\frac{1+\sqrt5}2=\frac{1-\sqrt5}2$ (for a chosen square root of $5$), or equivalently $\sqrt5=0$. Hence $5=0$, and $p=5$. We check that $5$ indeed works.
Back to the original case: the prime case implies $n=5^m$ for some $m\geq1$ (since it can have no prime factor other than 5). But when $n=25$ there is already no solution (and if $m\geq 2$, a solution $\pmod{5^m}$ would give rise to a solution $\pmod{25}$, a contradiction) so $n=5$.
| https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4069748 |
math | The $\epsilon$-neighborhood theorem | What shown below is a reference from "Analysis on manifolds" by James R. Munkres
So I want discuss more carrefully why it is sufficent to prove the statement using the sup metric: infact we know that topology induced by the euclidean metric is equivalent to the topology induced by the sup metric and so clearly the statement holds, right? Finally I don't understand why if $\epsilon:=\text{min}\{f(x):x\in X\}$ then the $\epsilon$-neighborhood of $X$ is contained in $U$. So could someone help me, please?
| VQAonline_00039731.png | No, the fact that the topologies are the same does not show that proving the theorem for one metric automatically proves it for the other. It works here because of the relationship between the two metrics involved. Let $N_E(X,\epsilon)$ be the Euclidean $\epsilon$-nbhd of $X$, and let $N_S(X,\epsilon)$ be the sup metric $\epsilon$-nbhd of $X$. Then $N_E(X,\epsilon)\subseteq N_S(X,\epsilon)$, so if $N_S(X,\epsilon)\subseteq U$, then automatically $N_E(X,\epsilon)\subseteq U$ as well.
For your second question, suppose that $\epsilon=\min\{f(x):x\in X\}$, and let $y\in\Bbb R^n\setminus U$. Then for each $x\in X$ we have $d_S(x,y)\ge f(x)\ge\epsilon$, so $y\notin B_S(x,\epsilon)$. And since $x\in X$ was arbitrary, $y\notin\bigcup_{x\in X}B_S(x,\epsilon)=N_S(X,\epsilon)$. That is $\Bbb R^n\setminus U$ is disjoint from $N_S(X,\epsilon)$, and hence $N_S(X,\epsilon)\subseteq U$.
| https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3653887 |
math | Trying to understanding the proof of the fact that Kazhdan property (T) implies expanders. | I am trying to trying to understanding the proof of the fact that Kazhdan property (T) implies expanders. This is a result of Grigory Margulis. It is stated in Proposition 3.3.1 on Page 30 of the book discrete groups, expander graphs, and invariant measures of Alexander Lubotzky.
Let $H=L^2(\Gamma/ N)$. Here $\Gamma$ is a finitely generated Kazhdan group $N$ is a finite index normal subgroup of $\Gamma$. Let $V = \Gamma/ N$. $L^2(\Gamma/ N)$ is the set of functions $f$ such that $||f||^2 = \sum_{x \in V} |f(x)|^2 < \infty$. $\Gamma$ acts on $H$ by $(\gamma f)(x) = f(x\gamma), x \in V, \gamma \in \Gamma$.
Let $H_0 = \{f \in H: \sum_{x\in V} f(x) = 0\}$. How to show that $H=H_0 \oplus \mathbb{C} \chi_V$ as a $\Gamma$-module? Why the action of $\Gamma$ on $V$ is transitive implies that the only $\Gamma$-invariant functions on $V$ are the constants $\mathbb{C} \chi_{V}$? Why then it follows that $H_0$ does not contain the trivial representation? Why $\Gamma$ is Kazhdan implies that $H_0$ does not have almost invariant functions? Thank you very much.
| VQAonline_00026637.png | The statement is quite obvious if you look at it closely. The group $\Gamma$ acts on $V$ (via left multiplication) through the subgroup $\Gamma/N$ of the full permutation group $S_n$, where $n=|V|$, acting by permuting the elements of $V$. Now, $S_n$ clearly preserves $H_0$. It also preserves the constant function $\chi_V$. Now, given any function $f$ on $V$ you consider the difference
$$
\bar f= f-\frac{1}{n}\sum_{x\in V} f(x)
$$
By construction $\bar f$ is in $H_0$, while $f- \bar f$ is a constant function, which, thus, belongs to ${\mathbb C} \chi_V$. Hence, we obtained the required direct sum decomposition of $H$ which is invariant under $S_n$ and, hence, under $\Gamma$.
| https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/631300 |
matheducators | Is Plane Trigonometry by S. L. Loney still good as a textbook today? | I am considering using S. L. Loney's Plane Trigonometry as the textbook for my course in trigonometry and would like to ask for opinions about the book. This books is very odd and there might be pros and cons because of its oldness.
Possible Pros:
It is a classical textbook and stands the test of time.
The copyright has expired yet the book is still available. Students can obtain the book at a very cheap price.
No more newer editions. So I do not need to adjust my syllabus every few years.
Possible Cons:
Some notation may be obsolete, such as the old notation for factorials:
The author probably assumed no calculators (or computation software), which is now widely used in this course.
The language used in late 1800s may sound archaic to some students.
Overall do you consider this book still as a reasonable option for a course on Trigonometry today?
Edit: The course is an undergraduate course with full name Pre-Calculus Trigonometry. Its description is:
Introduction to the elementary trigonometric functions using the
functional approach, simple identities, identities using the
summation, half arc, and double arc formulas, inverse and
composite functions, sketching of the elementary functions
emphasizing phase shift, period, and amplitude, and the solution of
right and obtuse angles.
The prerequisite for this course is called College Algebra with the following description:
This course provides students an opportunity to gain algebraic
knowledge needed in many different fields such as engineering,
business, education, science, computer technology, and mathematics.
Graphical, numerical, symbolic, and verbal methods support the study
of functions and their corresponding equations and inequalities.
Students will study linear, quadratic, rational, exponential,
logarithmic, inverse, composite, radical, and absolute value
functions; systems of equations and inequalities modeling applied
problems; and curve fitting techniques. There will be
extensive use of graphing calculators.
So the students in this course may or may not have any knowledge of trigonometry.
| VQAonline_00043905.png | I started my career as an archaeologist before I ended up in mathematics. I say this in order to emphasize that I am interested in trying to understand how people thought in the past—the usual "text" that an archaeologist reads is the collection of artifacts which are left behind, but there is also a very active field called Historical Archaeology which seeks to associate historical records with a "ground truth". From the point of view an "archaeologist" (or historian) of mathematics, I think that texts such as Loney may be interesting, and well worth reading. However, I would recommend against using such a text in an introductory class.
The cons which you mention are significant, but there are another couple of issues which should give you further pause:
Looking over the table of contents, it appears that much of the focus is on computation. For example, starting around page 106, there are many pages spent on computing the sines and cosines of angles using the angle sum and half-angle formulae. My experience is that modern exposition concerns itself more with the formulae themselves (as these recur in calculus), and largely elides explicit computation. Such computation is, perhaps, useful as an exercise, but a CAS can typically do the job faster and more accurately. In general, my preference would be to use a book which places much less emphasis on computation or which emphasizes the way in which modern computers can aid computation.
There are a lot of topics in that text which are kind of archaic, or which are wholly inappropriate for a modern precalculus class. For example, most of Chapters X and XI are not relevant in a modern classroom (there is no reason for students to be taught how to read a log table, for example). Much of Chapter XV seems to focus on aspects of geometry which, for better or worse, are not typically part of the standard US precalculus curriculum (some of it might show up in the high school curriculum, but a lot of it isn't part any standard curriculum prior to upper division courses in geometry (or, perhaps, math competition prep courses)). These topics certainly have some interest, but if the goal is to prepare students for a standard calculus curriculum, then they don't do any favors to the students.
And then there is Part II. Almost nothing in Part II is part of the precalculus curriculum (and nothing in Part II is mentioned in the course description in the question). It starts with series representations of the logarithm and exponential (though using notation which is difficult to parse by modern standards—the funky factorial and the lack of Sigma notation, for example), moves on to a couple of limits, then jumps into complex analysis. The entire second half of the book is, in most modern classrooms, covered in courses on calculus and complex analysis. It doesn't belong in a precalculus class.
The fact that Part II is inappropriate for a precalculus class isn't a big deal—Part I certainly contains enough material for a semester—but I think that it might be better to select a book which is more narrowly focused on the topics which you actually need to cover.
In the question, it is noted that the language "may sound archaic to some students". I think that this fails to capture the magnitude of the problem—I think that students are likely to bounce hard off of a topic which is presented with unfamiliar notation (and, by the way, unfamiliar notation which they won't ever see again) written in a form of English which is distinctly old fashioned. They inconsistent typesetting also does the book no favors (but now I'm being catty).
I am struggling for an analogy which is not hyperbolic, but I think that the following works: you don't teach students Russian by asking them to read Война и Мир (War and Peace) or Евгений Онегин (a novel by Pushkin) in the original pre-reform language right out of the gate. Get your students to read something from the 20th or 21st Century, first (maybe something like Один День Ивана Денисовича—the language is modern and pretty accessible, and it is still a classic). Anyone who wants to become a scholar of Russian literature should probably get familiar with pre-reform works eventually, but that isn't the place to start. Start with modern Russian, and work back.
Similarly, students of mathematics should start with a modern presentation and then, if they want to study the history of mathematics, start trying to tackle the classics (presuming that Loney is, indeed, a "classic", and not simply "old").
Basically, my recommendation would be to find another text. I don't think that Loney is appropriate for a modern introductory audience. At best, you might use it supplement the course (for example, one of my critiques of the text, above, is that if over-emphasizes computation, at least by modern standards; however, there appear to be a lot of exercises in the text, which might prove useful). Moreover, there is nothing wrong with reading a book such a Loney's and drawing inspiration from it (personally, I have gotten a lot of milage in my precalc classes out of Gelfand's Method of Coordinates and Klein's Elementary Mathematics from an Higher Standpoint).
Unfortunately, I also don't have a lot of advice about which book you should use. There are a lot of books out there with titles like Precalculus (with Trigonometry!) and Trigonometry for the Precalculus Student and whatnot. Most of these books are 1,000 pages long, weigh 10 lbs., and cost $200+. They make good doorstops, but are otherwise too dilute and broad to be of much use. I'm also not a huge fan of the Schaum's Outlines as course texts. They are useful for exercises, but leave a lot to be desired vis-à-vis exposition (of course, that is kind of the point—they are outlines).
Perhaps consider one of the open source texts that are out there? For example, the OpenStax Algebra and Trigonometry or the Open Textbook Library's Trigonometry. I suspect that these books will suffer from many of the same problems as the $200+ tomes, but at least they are free. :\
| https://matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/17144 |