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Please describe the broad classes of Reinforcement Learning (RL) within Machine Learning and what problems they attempt to address.

Associative reinforcement learning Associative reinforcement learning tasks combine facets of stochastic learning automata tasks and supervised learning pattern classification tasks. In associative reinforcement learning tasks, the learning system interacts in a closed loop with its environment. Deep reinforcement learning This approach extends reinforcement learning by using a deep neural network and without explicitly designing the state space. The work on learning ATARI games by Google DeepMind increased attention to deep reinforcement learning or end-to-end reinforcement learning. Adversarial deep reinforcement learning Adversarial deep reinforcement learning is an active area of research in reinforcement learning focusing on vulnerabilities of learned policies. In this research area some studies initially showed that reinforcement learning policies are susceptible to imperceptible adversarial manipulations. While some methods have been proposed to overcome these susceptibilities, in the most recent studies it has been shown that these proposed solutions are far from providing an accurate representation of current vulnerabilities of deep reinforcement learning policies. Fuzzy reinforcement learning By introducing fuzzy inference in RL, approximating the state-action value function with fuzzy rules in continuous space becomes possible. The IF - THEN form of fuzzy rules make this approach suitable for expressing the results in a form close to natural language. Extending FRL with Fuzzy Rule Interpolation allows the use of reduced size sparse fuzzy rule-bases to emphasize cardinal rules (most important state-action values). Inverse reinforcement learning In inverse reinforcement learning (IRL), no reward function is given. Instead, the reward function is inferred given an observed behavior from an expert. The idea is to mimic observed behavior, which is often optimal or close to optimal. Safe reinforcement learning Safe reinforcement learning (SRL) can be defined as the process of learning policies that maximize the expectation of the return in problems in which it is important to ensure reasonable system performance and/or respect safety constraints during the learning and/or deployment processes.

Reinforcement Learning is an area of Machine Learning that works in a problem space or environment where the agent or Reinforcement Learning algorithm, uses an understanding of the past test results and the potential paths through the environment to calculate a policy that solves for the goal of a maximized reward. Given the variety of environments that RL can operate in, there are a range of approaches that the agent can take and are broadly categarized as six different approaches: 1. Associated RL - which combines traditional approaches of Machine Learning classification with the automated learning on random, or stochastically distributed results. 2. Deep RL - which leverages traditional deep neural networks but allows for flexibility and a lack of pre-defined layers and the state space. 3. Adversarial Deep RL - where end results are compared using vulnerabilities in state stored in Deep Neural Networks and attempts to find weaknesses in these models. 4. Fuzzy RL - which leverages a near natural language definition of if-then fuzzy rules which determine the calculation of the value of a result. 5. Inverse RL - which removes the common reward function evaluation part of the model and instead injects a human to observe and evalutate the results. 6. Safe RL - is an approach to defining policies that also takes into account the behavior of the agent in the envionment, such that those agent steps are reasonaable or respect safety constraints.

summarization

### Instruction: Please describe the broad classes of Reinforcement Learning (RL) within Machine Learning and what problems they attempt to address. ### Context: Associative reinforcement learning Associative reinforcement learning tasks combine facets of stochastic learning automata tasks and supervised learning pattern classification tasks. In associative reinforcement learning tasks, the learning system interacts in a closed loop with its environment. Deep reinforcement learning This approach extends reinforcement learning by using a deep neural network and without explicitly designing the state space. The work on learning ATARI games by Google DeepMind increased attention to deep reinforcement learning or end-to-end reinforcement learning. Adversarial deep reinforcement learning Adversarial deep reinforcement learning is an active area of research in reinforcement learning focusing on vulnerabilities of learned policies. In this research area some studies initially showed that reinforcement learning policies are susceptible to imperceptible adversarial manipulations. While some methods have been proposed to overcome these susceptibilities, in the most recent studies it has been shown that these proposed solutions are far from providing an accurate representation of current vulnerabilities of deep reinforcement learning policies. Fuzzy reinforcement learning By introducing fuzzy inference in RL, approximating the state-action value function with fuzzy rules in continuous space becomes possible. The IF - THEN form of fuzzy rules make this approach suitable for expressing the results in a form close to natural language. Extending FRL with Fuzzy Rule Interpolation allows the use of reduced size sparse fuzzy rule-bases to emphasize cardinal rules (most important state-action values). Inverse reinforcement learning In inverse reinforcement learning (IRL), no reward function is given. Instead, the reward function is inferred given an observed behavior from an expert. The idea is to mimic observed behavior, which is often optimal or close to optimal. Safe reinforcement learning Safe reinforcement learning (SRL) can be defined as the process of learning policies that maximize the expectation of the return in problems in which it is important to ensure reasonable system performance and/or respect safety constraints during the learning and/or deployment processes. ### Answer: Reinforcement Learning is an area of Machine Learning that works in a problem space or environment where the agent or Reinforcement Learning algorithm, uses an understanding of the past test results and the potential paths through the environment to calculate a policy that solves for the goal of a maximized reward. Given the variety of environments that RL can operate in, there are a range of approaches that the agent can take and are broadly categarized as six different approaches: 1. Associated RL - which combines traditional approaches of Machine Learning classification with the automated learning on random, or stochastically distributed results. 2. Deep RL - which leverages traditional deep neural networks but allows for flexibility and a lack of pre-defined layers and the state space. 3. Adversarial Deep RL - where end results are compared using vulnerabilities in state stored in Deep Neural Networks and attempts to find weaknesses in these models. 4. Fuzzy RL - which leverages a near natural language definition of if-then fuzzy rules which determine the calculation of the value of a result. 5. Inverse RL - which removes the common reward function evaluation part of the model and instead injects a human to observe and evalutate the results. 6. Safe RL - is an approach to defining policies that also takes into account the behavior of the agent in the envionment, such that those agent steps are reasonaable or respect safety constraints.</s>

What are major rivers in Serbia

All rivers in Serbia belong to the drainage basins of three seas: Black Sea, Adriatic Sea or Aegean Sea. The largest in area, Black Sea drainage basin, covers an area of 81,261 km2 or 92% of the territory of Serbia. The entire basin is drained by only one river, the Danube, which flows into the Black Sea. All major rivers in Serbia, like Tisa, Sava, Velika Morava and Drina belong to it. The Adriatic Sea drainage basin covers an area of 4,500 km2 or 5% of territory of Serbia. It comprises the western half of the Kosovo and Metohija and it is mostly drained by one river, the White Drin, which in Albania meets the Black Drin to create the Drin river, which flows into the Adriatic Sea. Smaller portion of it is drained by Crni Kamen-Radika river in the extreme southern region of Gora, which also drains into Black Drin in North Macedonia. The Aegean Sea basin is the smallest in area, 2,650 km2 or 3% of the territory of Serbia, and covers the southern parts of Serbia, to the Macedonian and Bulgarian borders. It is drained by three rivers: Lepenac, Pčinja and Dragovištica. The first two flow into the Vardar river in North Macedonia, and the third flows into the Struma river in Bulgaria, and both of those rivers flow into the Aegean Sea. All three basins meet at the Drmanska glava peak on the Crnoljeva mountain in central Kosovo, which represents the water divide of Serbia and the major one in the Balkans, as it divides three out of the Balkan's four drainage basins (the fourth being the Ionian Sea).

All rivers in Serbia belong to the drainage basins of three seas: Black Sea, Adriatic Sea or Aegean Sea. The largest in area, Black Sea drainage basin, covers an area of 81,261 km2 or 92% of the territory of Serbia. The entire basin is drained by only one river, the Danube, which flows into the Black Sea. All major rivers in Serbia, like Tisa, Sava, Velika Morava and Drina belong to it. The Adriatic Sea drainage basin covers an area of 4,500 km2 or 5% of territory of Serbia. It comprises the western half of the Kosovo and Metohija and it is mostly drained by one river, the White Drin, which in Albania meets the Black Drin to create the Drin river, which flows into the Adriatic Sea. Smaller portion of it is drained by Crni Kamen-Radika river in the extreme southern region of Gora, which also drains into Black Drin in North Macedonia. The Aegean Sea basin is the smallest in area, 2,650 km2 or 3% of the territory of Serbia, and covers the southern parts of Serbia, to the Macedonian and Bulgarian borders. It is drained by three rivers: Lepenac, Pcinja and Dragovistica. The first two flow into the Vardar river in North Macedonia, and the third flows into the Struma river in Bulgaria, and both of those rivers flow into the Aegean Sea. All three basins meet at the Drmanska glava peak on the Crnoljeva mountain in central Kosovo, which represents the water divide of Serbia and the major one in the Balkans, as it divides three out of the Balkan's four drainage basins (the fourth being the Ionian Sea).

summarization

### Instruction: What are major rivers in Serbia ### Context: All rivers in Serbia belong to the drainage basins of three seas: Black Sea, Adriatic Sea or Aegean Sea. The largest in area, Black Sea drainage basin, covers an area of 81,261 km2 or 92% of the territory of Serbia. The entire basin is drained by only one river, the Danube, which flows into the Black Sea. All major rivers in Serbia, like Tisa, Sava, Velika Morava and Drina belong to it. The Adriatic Sea drainage basin covers an area of 4,500 km2 or 5% of territory of Serbia. It comprises the western half of the Kosovo and Metohija and it is mostly drained by one river, the White Drin, which in Albania meets the Black Drin to create the Drin river, which flows into the Adriatic Sea. Smaller portion of it is drained by Crni Kamen-Radika river in the extreme southern region of Gora, which also drains into Black Drin in North Macedonia. The Aegean Sea basin is the smallest in area, 2,650 km2 or 3% of the territory of Serbia, and covers the southern parts of Serbia, to the Macedonian and Bulgarian borders. It is drained by three rivers: Lepenac, Pčinja and Dragovištica. The first two flow into the Vardar river in North Macedonia, and the third flows into the Struma river in Bulgaria, and both of those rivers flow into the Aegean Sea. All three basins meet at the Drmanska glava peak on the Crnoljeva mountain in central Kosovo, which represents the water divide of Serbia and the major one in the Balkans, as it divides three out of the Balkan's four drainage basins (the fourth being the Ionian Sea). ### Answer: All rivers in Serbia belong to the drainage basins of three seas: Black Sea, Adriatic Sea or Aegean Sea. The largest in area, Black Sea drainage basin, covers an area of 81,261 km2 or 92% of the territory of Serbia. The entire basin is drained by only one river, the Danube, which flows into the Black Sea. All major rivers in Serbia, like Tisa, Sava, Velika Morava and Drina belong to it. The Adriatic Sea drainage basin covers an area of 4,500 km2 or 5% of territory of Serbia. It comprises the western half of the Kosovo and Metohija and it is mostly drained by one river, the White Drin, which in Albania meets the Black Drin to create the Drin river, which flows into the Adriatic Sea. Smaller portion of it is drained by Crni Kamen-Radika river in the extreme southern region of Gora, which also drains into Black Drin in North Macedonia. The Aegean Sea basin is the smallest in area, 2,650 km2 or 3% of the territory of Serbia, and covers the southern parts of Serbia, to the Macedonian and Bulgarian borders. It is drained by three rivers: Lepenac, Pcinja and Dragovistica. The first two flow into the Vardar river in North Macedonia, and the third flows into the Struma river in Bulgaria, and both of those rivers flow into the Aegean Sea. All three basins meet at the Drmanska glava peak on the Crnoljeva mountain in central Kosovo, which represents the water divide of Serbia and the major one in the Balkans, as it divides three out of the Balkan's four drainage basins (the fourth being the Ionian Sea).</s>

According to the below, what is the Markov decision process?

In mathematics, a Markov decision process (MDP) is a discrete-time stochastic control process. It provides a mathematical framework for modeling decision making in situations where outcomes are partly random and partly under the control of a decision maker. MDPs are useful for studying optimization problems solved via dynamic programming. MDPs were known at least as early as the 1950s; a core body of research on Markov decision processes resulted from Ronald Howard's 1960 book, Dynamic Programming and Markov Processes. They are used in many disciplines, including robotics, automatic control, economics and manufacturing. The name of MDPs comes from the Russian mathematician Andrey Markov as they are an extension of Markov chains.

A Markov decision process (MDP) is a mathematical framework for modeling decision making in cases where outcomes are not entirely under the control of decision makers. MDPs are used in a variety of disciplines, such as robotics and economics.

summarization

### Instruction: According to the below, what is the Markov decision process? ### Context: In mathematics, a Markov decision process (MDP) is a discrete-time stochastic control process. It provides a mathematical framework for modeling decision making in situations where outcomes are partly random and partly under the control of a decision maker. MDPs are useful for studying optimization problems solved via dynamic programming. MDPs were known at least as early as the 1950s; a core body of research on Markov decision processes resulted from Ronald Howard's 1960 book, Dynamic Programming and Markov Processes. They are used in many disciplines, including robotics, automatic control, economics and manufacturing. The name of MDPs comes from the Russian mathematician Andrey Markov as they are an extension of Markov chains. ### Answer: A Markov decision process (MDP) is a mathematical framework for modeling decision making in cases where outcomes are not entirely under the control of decision makers. MDPs are used in a variety of disciplines, such as robotics and economics.</s>

What is passive solar building design

In passive solar building design, windows, walls, and floors are made to collect, store, reflect, and distribute solar energy, in the form of heat in the winter and reject solar heat in the summer. This is called passive solar design because, unlike active solar heating systems, it does not involve the use of mechanical and electrical devices. The key to designing a passive solar building is to best take advantage of the local climate performing an accurate site analysis. Elements to be considered include window placement and size, and glazing type, thermal insulation, thermal mass, and shading. Passive solar design techniques can be applied most easily to new buildings, but existing buildings can be adapted or "retrofitted".

In passive solar building design, windows, walls, and floors are made to collect, store, reflect, and distribute solar energy, in the form of heat in the winter and reject solar heat in the summer. This is called passive solar design because, unlike active solar heating systems, it does not involve the use of mechanical and electrical devices. The key to designing a passive solar building is to best take advantage of the local climate performing an accurate site analysis. Elements to be considered include window placement and size, and glazing type, thermal insulation, thermal mass, and shading. Passive solar design techniques can be applied most easily to new buildings, but existing buildings can be adapted or "retrofitted".

summarization

### Instruction: What is passive solar building design ### Context: In passive solar building design, windows, walls, and floors are made to collect, store, reflect, and distribute solar energy, in the form of heat in the winter and reject solar heat in the summer. This is called passive solar design because, unlike active solar heating systems, it does not involve the use of mechanical and electrical devices. The key to designing a passive solar building is to best take advantage of the local climate performing an accurate site analysis. Elements to be considered include window placement and size, and glazing type, thermal insulation, thermal mass, and shading. Passive solar design techniques can be applied most easily to new buildings, but existing buildings can be adapted or "retrofitted". ### Answer: In passive solar building design, windows, walls, and floors are made to collect, store, reflect, and distribute solar energy, in the form of heat in the winter and reject solar heat in the summer. This is called passive solar design because, unlike active solar heating systems, it does not involve the use of mechanical and electrical devices. The key to designing a passive solar building is to best take advantage of the local climate performing an accurate site analysis. Elements to be considered include window placement and size, and glazing type, thermal insulation, thermal mass, and shading. Passive solar design techniques can be applied most easily to new buildings, but existing buildings can be adapted or "retrofitted".</s>

Based on the text, please give me a brief summary of the history of the DTES neighbourhood in Vancouver

Around the beginning of the 20th century, the DTES was Vancouver's political, cultural and retail centre. Over several decades, the city centre gradually shifted westwards, and the DTES became a poor neighbourhood, although relatively stable. In the 1980s, the area began a rapid decline due to several factors, including an influx of hard drugs, policies that pushed sex work and drug-related activity out of nearby areas, and the cessation of federal funding for social housing. By 1997, an epidemic of HIV infection and drug overdoses in the DTES led to the declaration of a public health emergency. As of 2018, critical issues include opioid overdoses, especially those involving the drug fentanyl; decrepit and squalid housing; a shortage of low-cost rental housing; and mental illness, which often co-occurs with addiction.

The DTES has transformed from the focal point of Vancouver’s cultural and commercial life at the start of the 20th Century to an impoverished neighbourhood with many socio-economic problems by the 1980s. Since the 1990s, the DTES has been home to a public health emergency due to drug overdoses, HIV infection, a housing crisis, and mental health problems.

summarization

### Instruction: Based on the text, please give me a brief summary of the history of the DTES neighbourhood in Vancouver ### Context: Around the beginning of the 20th century, the DTES was Vancouver's political, cultural and retail centre. Over several decades, the city centre gradually shifted westwards, and the DTES became a poor neighbourhood, although relatively stable. In the 1980s, the area began a rapid decline due to several factors, including an influx of hard drugs, policies that pushed sex work and drug-related activity out of nearby areas, and the cessation of federal funding for social housing. By 1997, an epidemic of HIV infection and drug overdoses in the DTES led to the declaration of a public health emergency. As of 2018, critical issues include opioid overdoses, especially those involving the drug fentanyl; decrepit and squalid housing; a shortage of low-cost rental housing; and mental illness, which often co-occurs with addiction. ### Answer: The DTES has transformed from the focal point of Vancouver’s cultural and commercial life at the start of the 20th Century to an impoverished neighbourhood with many socio-economic problems by the 1980s. Since the 1990s, the DTES has been home to a public health emergency due to drug overdoses, HIV infection, a housing crisis, and mental health problems.</s>

What's the Moroccan infrastructure ?

According to the Global Competitiveness Report of 2019, Morocco Ranked 32nd in the world in terms of Roads, 16th in Sea, 45th in Air and 64th in Railways. This gives Morocco the best infrastructure rankings in the African continent. Modern infrastructure development, such as ports, airports, and rail links, is a top government priority. To meet the growing domestic demand, the Moroccan government invested more than $15 billion from 2010 to 2015 in upgrading its basic infrastructure. Morocco has one of the best road systems on the continent. Over the past 20 years, the government has built approximately 1770 kilometers of modern roads, connecting most major cities via toll expressways. The Moroccan Ministry of Equipment, Transport, Logistics, and Water aims to build an additional 3380 kilometers of expressway and 2100 kilometers of highway by 2030, at an expected cost of $9.6 billion. It focuses on linking the southern provinces, notably the cities of Laayoune and Dakhla to the rest of Morocco. In 2014, Morocco began the construction of the first high-speed railway system in Africa linking the cities of Tangiers and Casablanca. It was inaugurated in 2018 by the King following over a decade of planning and construction by Moroccan national railway company ONCF. It is the first phase of what is planned to eventually be a 1,500 kilometeres (930 mi) high-speed rail network in Morocco. An extension of the line to Marrakesh is already being planned. Morocco also has the largest port in Africa and the Mediterranean called Tanger-Med, which is ranked the 18th in the world with a handling capacity of over 9 million containers. It is situated in the Tangiers free economic zone and serves as a logistics hub for Africa and the world.

Morocco has the best infrastructure in Africa.Morocco is ranked 32 in the world in terms of Roads, 16th in Sea , 45th in Air and 64 in Railways. A High-speed railway system was inaugurated in 2018. It's linking the cities of Tangiers and Casablanca. An extension of the line is already planned. Morocco has also the largest port in Africa called Tanger Med. It's ranked 18th in the world.

summarization

### Instruction: What's the Moroccan infrastructure ? ### Context: According to the Global Competitiveness Report of 2019, Morocco Ranked 32nd in the world in terms of Roads, 16th in Sea, 45th in Air and 64th in Railways. This gives Morocco the best infrastructure rankings in the African continent. Modern infrastructure development, such as ports, airports, and rail links, is a top government priority. To meet the growing domestic demand, the Moroccan government invested more than $15 billion from 2010 to 2015 in upgrading its basic infrastructure. Morocco has one of the best road systems on the continent. Over the past 20 years, the government has built approximately 1770 kilometers of modern roads, connecting most major cities via toll expressways. The Moroccan Ministry of Equipment, Transport, Logistics, and Water aims to build an additional 3380 kilometers of expressway and 2100 kilometers of highway by 2030, at an expected cost of $9.6 billion. It focuses on linking the southern provinces, notably the cities of Laayoune and Dakhla to the rest of Morocco. In 2014, Morocco began the construction of the first high-speed railway system in Africa linking the cities of Tangiers and Casablanca. It was inaugurated in 2018 by the King following over a decade of planning and construction by Moroccan national railway company ONCF. It is the first phase of what is planned to eventually be a 1,500 kilometeres (930 mi) high-speed rail network in Morocco. An extension of the line to Marrakesh is already being planned. Morocco also has the largest port in Africa and the Mediterranean called Tanger-Med, which is ranked the 18th in the world with a handling capacity of over 9 million containers. It is situated in the Tangiers free economic zone and serves as a logistics hub for Africa and the world. ### Answer: Morocco has the best infrastructure in Africa.Morocco is ranked 32 in the world in terms of Roads, 16th in Sea , 45th in Air and 64 in Railways. A High-speed railway system was inaugurated in 2018. It's linking the cities of Tangiers and Casablanca. An extension of the line is already planned. Morocco has also the largest port in Africa called Tanger Med. It's ranked 18th in the world.</s>

Tell me what I need to know about the Dunning Kruger effect.

The Dunning–Kruger effect is a cognitive bias whereby people with low ability, expertise, or experience regarding a certain type of task or area of knowledge tend to overestimate their ability or knowledge. Some researchers also include the opposite effect for high performers: their tendency to underestimate their skills. In popular culture, the Dunning–Kruger effect is often misunderstood as a claim about general overconfidence of people with low intelligence instead of specific overconfidence of people unskilled at a particular task. The Dunning–Kruger effect is usually measured by comparing self-assessment with a measure of objective performance. For example, the participants in a study may be asked to complete a quiz and then estimate how well they performed. This subjective assessment is then compared with how well they actually performed. This can happen in either relative or absolute terms, i.e., in comparison with one's peer group as the percentage of peers outperformed or in comparison with objective standards as the number of questions answered correctly. The Dunning–Kruger effect appears in both cases, but is more pronounced in relative terms; the bottom quartile of performers tend to see themselves as being part of the top two quartiles. The initial study was published by David Dunning and Justin Kruger in 1999. It focused on logical reasoning, grammar, and social skills. Since then various other studies have been conducted across a wide range of tasks, including skills from fields such as business, politics, medicine, driving, aviation, spatial memory, examinations in school, and literacy. Many models have been suggested to explain the Dunning-Kruger effect's underlying causes. The original model by Dunning and Kruger holds that a lack of metacognitive abilities is responsible. This interpretation is based on the idea that poor performers have not yet acquired the ability to distinguish between good and bad performances. They tend to overrate themselves because they do not see the qualitative difference between their performances and the performances of others. This has also been termed the "dual-burden account" since the lack of skill is paired with the ignorance of this deficiency. Some researchers include the metacognitive component as part of the definition of the Dunning–Kruger effect and not just as an explanation distinct from it. Various researchers have criticized the metacognitive model and proposed alternative explanations. According to the statistical model, a statistical effect known as regression toward the mean together with the cognitive bias known as the better-than-average effect are responsible for the empirical findings. The rational model holds that overly positive prior beliefs about one's skills are the source of false self-assessment. Another explanation claims that self-assessment is more difficult and error-prone for low performers because many of them have very similar skill levels. Another model sees lack of incentive to give accurate self-assessments as the source of error. The Dunning–Kruger effect has been described as relevant for various practical matters, but disagreements exist about the magnitude of its influence. Inaccurate self-assessment can lead people to make bad decisions, such as choosing a career for which they are unfit or engaging in dangerous behavior. It may also inhibit the affected from addressing their shortcomings to improve themselves. In some cases, the associated overconfidence may have positive side effects, like increasing motivation and energy.

The Dunning-Kruger effect refers to the tendency for people to over-estimate their ability to perform a particular task, particular if they are low-skilled at that task. Related research suggests that the converse is also true; high-skills performers tend to underestimate their ability. The effect was validated through a number of studies covering a range of skills, though the cause of the effect is still a matter of debate. Similarly, the practical implications of the effect is debatable, as over-confidence stemming from an inaccurate self-assessments can have positive and negative impacts.

summarization

### Instruction: Tell me what I need to know about the Dunning Kruger effect. ### Context: The Dunning–Kruger effect is a cognitive bias whereby people with low ability, expertise, or experience regarding a certain type of task or area of knowledge tend to overestimate their ability or knowledge. Some researchers also include the opposite effect for high performers: their tendency to underestimate their skills. In popular culture, the Dunning–Kruger effect is often misunderstood as a claim about general overconfidence of people with low intelligence instead of specific overconfidence of people unskilled at a particular task. The Dunning–Kruger effect is usually measured by comparing self-assessment with a measure of objective performance. For example, the participants in a study may be asked to complete a quiz and then estimate how well they performed. This subjective assessment is then compared with how well they actually performed. This can happen in either relative or absolute terms, i.e., in comparison with one's peer group as the percentage of peers outperformed or in comparison with objective standards as the number of questions answered correctly. The Dunning–Kruger effect appears in both cases, but is more pronounced in relative terms; the bottom quartile of performers tend to see themselves as being part of the top two quartiles. The initial study was published by David Dunning and Justin Kruger in 1999. It focused on logical reasoning, grammar, and social skills. Since then various other studies have been conducted across a wide range of tasks, including skills from fields such as business, politics, medicine, driving, aviation, spatial memory, examinations in school, and literacy. Many models have been suggested to explain the Dunning-Kruger effect's underlying causes. The original model by Dunning and Kruger holds that a lack of metacognitive abilities is responsible. This interpretation is based on the idea that poor performers have not yet acquired the ability to distinguish between good and bad performances. They tend to overrate themselves because they do not see the qualitative difference between their performances and the performances of others. This has also been termed the "dual-burden account" since the lack of skill is paired with the ignorance of this deficiency. Some researchers include the metacognitive component as part of the definition of the Dunning–Kruger effect and not just as an explanation distinct from it. Various researchers have criticized the metacognitive model and proposed alternative explanations. According to the statistical model, a statistical effect known as regression toward the mean together with the cognitive bias known as the better-than-average effect are responsible for the empirical findings. The rational model holds that overly positive prior beliefs about one's skills are the source of false self-assessment. Another explanation claims that self-assessment is more difficult and error-prone for low performers because many of them have very similar skill levels. Another model sees lack of incentive to give accurate self-assessments as the source of error. The Dunning–Kruger effect has been described as relevant for various practical matters, but disagreements exist about the magnitude of its influence. Inaccurate self-assessment can lead people to make bad decisions, such as choosing a career for which they are unfit or engaging in dangerous behavior. It may also inhibit the affected from addressing their shortcomings to improve themselves. In some cases, the associated overconfidence may have positive side effects, like increasing motivation and energy. ### Answer: The Dunning-Kruger effect refers to the tendency for people to over-estimate their ability to perform a particular task, particular if they are low-skilled at that task. Related research suggests that the converse is also true; high-skills performers tend to underestimate their ability. The effect was validated through a number of studies covering a range of skills, though the cause of the effect is still a matter of debate. Similarly, the practical implications of the effect is debatable, as over-confidence stemming from an inaccurate self-assessments can have positive and negative impacts.</s>

In the given passage, List me some points about the TV show : Locke & Key

After Rendell Locke is murdered at the hands of former student Sam Lesser, his wife Nina decides to move with her three children, Tyler, Kinsey, and Bode, from Seattle to Matheson, Massachusetts, and take residence in Rendell's family home, Keyhouse. The children soon discover a number of mysterious keys throughout the house that can be used to unlock various doors in magical ways. They soon become aware of a demonic entity that is also searching for the keys for its own malevolent purposes.

1.When Nina’s husband Rendell was murdered by his own student Sam lesser, She moved with her family from Seattle to Matheson. 2.Nina with her three children, Tyler, Kinsey, and Bode moved to Rendell's family home, Keyhouse. 3.Throughout the house, children discovered a number of mysterious keys, that can be used to unlock various doors in magical ways. 4.Children soon become aware of a demons that were also searching the keys for malevolent purposes.

summarization

### Instruction: In the given passage, List me some points about the TV show : Locke & Key ### Context: After Rendell Locke is murdered at the hands of former student Sam Lesser, his wife Nina decides to move with her three children, Tyler, Kinsey, and Bode, from Seattle to Matheson, Massachusetts, and take residence in Rendell's family home, Keyhouse. The children soon discover a number of mysterious keys throughout the house that can be used to unlock various doors in magical ways. They soon become aware of a demonic entity that is also searching for the keys for its own malevolent purposes. ### Answer: 1.When Nina’s husband Rendell was murdered by his own student Sam lesser, She moved with her family from Seattle to Matheson. 2.Nina with her three children, Tyler, Kinsey, and Bode moved to Rendell's family home, Keyhouse. 3.Throughout the house, children discovered a number of mysterious keys, that can be used to unlock various doors in magical ways. 4.Children soon become aware of a demons that were also searching the keys for malevolent purposes.</s>

What are some geographical and topological features of the Bajardo comune described on this text?

Bajardo (also Baiardo) (Ligurian: Baiardu) is a comune in the Province of Imperia in the Italian region Liguria. It is about 110 kilometres (68 mi) southwest of Genoa and about 25 kilometres (16 mi) west of Imperia. Its principal settlement, Bajardo itself, is a medieval village which stands at an elevation of 900 metres (3,000 ft) on a peak at the head of the basin of the Nervia torrent.

Bajardo is about 110km (68mi) southwest of Genoa and about 25 kilometers (16 mi) west of Imperia. Its principal settlement stands at an elevation of 900 meters (3,000 ft).

summarization

### Instruction: What are some geographical and topological features of the Bajardo comune described on this text? ### Context: Bajardo (also Baiardo) (Ligurian: Baiardu) is a comune in the Province of Imperia in the Italian region Liguria. It is about 110 kilometres (68 mi) southwest of Genoa and about 25 kilometres (16 mi) west of Imperia. Its principal settlement, Bajardo itself, is a medieval village which stands at an elevation of 900 metres (3,000 ft) on a peak at the head of the basin of the Nervia torrent. ### Answer: Bajardo is about 110km (68mi) southwest of Genoa and about 25 kilometers (16 mi) west of Imperia. Its principal settlement stands at an elevation of 900 meters (3,000 ft).</s>

What is Ana María Gonzalez famous for

Ana María González (born 13 April 1951) is a Spanish lyric soprano trained in Argentina, known for performing at the Teatro Colón from 1973 to 1994. Although associated with the Italian lyric repertoire, she also excelled in lyric soprano roles of the French repertoire such as Manon, Marguerite, and Juliette, which brought her international fame.

Ana María Gonzalez (born 13 April 1951) is a Spanish lyric soprano trained in Argentina, known for performing at the Teatro Colón from 1973 to 1994. Although associated with the Italian lyric repertoire, she also excelled in lyric soprano roles of the French repertoire such as Manon, Marguerite, and Juliette, which brought her international fame.

summarization

### Instruction: What is Ana María Gonzalez famous for ### Context: Ana María González (born 13 April 1951) is a Spanish lyric soprano trained in Argentina, known for performing at the Teatro Colón from 1973 to 1994. Although associated with the Italian lyric repertoire, she also excelled in lyric soprano roles of the French repertoire such as Manon, Marguerite, and Juliette, which brought her international fame. ### Answer: Ana María Gonzalez (born 13 April 1951) is a Spanish lyric soprano trained in Argentina, known for performing at the Teatro Colón from 1973 to 1994. Although associated with the Italian lyric repertoire, she also excelled in lyric soprano roles of the French repertoire such as Manon, Marguerite, and Juliette, which brought her international fame.</s>

Summarize the key developments in human evolution based on the paragraph below

Primates diverged from other mammals about 85 million years ago (mya), in the Late Cretaceous period, with their earliest fossils appearing over 55 mya, during the Paleocene. Primates produced successive clades leading to the ape superfamily, which gave rise to the hominid and the gibbon families; these diverged some 15–20 mya. African and Asian hominids (including orangutans) diverged about 14 mya. Hominins (including the Australopithecine and Panina subtribes) parted from the Gorillini tribe (gorillas) between 8–9 mya; Australopithecine (including the extinct biped ancestors of humans) separated from the Pan genus (containing chimpanzees and bonobos) 4–7 mya. The Homo genus is evidenced by the appearance of H. habilis over 2 mya, while anatomically modern humans emerged in Africa approximately 300,000 years ago.

1) Primates diverged from other mammals 85 million years ago 2) The hominid family emerged 15-20 million years ago. 3) Hominins parted from gorillas between 8 and 9 million years ago 4) Australopithecines separated from the Pan genus 4-7 million years ago 5) The Homo genus appeared over 2 million years ago 6) Anatomically modern humans emerged in Afirca 300,000 years ago

summarization

### Instruction: Summarize the key developments in human evolution based on the paragraph below ### Context: Primates diverged from other mammals about 85 million years ago (mya), in the Late Cretaceous period, with their earliest fossils appearing over 55 mya, during the Paleocene. Primates produced successive clades leading to the ape superfamily, which gave rise to the hominid and the gibbon families; these diverged some 15–20 mya. African and Asian hominids (including orangutans) diverged about 14 mya. Hominins (including the Australopithecine and Panina subtribes) parted from the Gorillini tribe (gorillas) between 8–9 mya; Australopithecine (including the extinct biped ancestors of humans) separated from the Pan genus (containing chimpanzees and bonobos) 4–7 mya. The Homo genus is evidenced by the appearance of H. habilis over 2 mya, while anatomically modern humans emerged in Africa approximately 300,000 years ago. ### Answer: 1) Primates diverged from other mammals 85 million years ago 2) The hominid family emerged 15-20 million years ago. 3) Hominins parted from gorillas between 8 and 9 million years ago 4) Australopithecines separated from the Pan genus 4-7 million years ago 5) The Homo genus appeared over 2 million years ago 6) Anatomically modern humans emerged in Afirca 300,000 years ago</s>

Who was Manchester United's most successful manager?

Manchester United have won a record 20 League titles, 12 FA Cups, six League Cups, and a record 21 FA Community Shields. They have won the European Cup/UEFA Champions League three times, and the UEFA Europa League, the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup, the UEFA Super Cup, the Intercontinental Cup and the FIFA Club World Cup once each. In 1968, under the management of Matt Busby, 10 years after eight of the club's players were killed in the Munich air disaster, they became the first English club to win the European Cup. Sir Alex Ferguson is the club's longest-serving and most successful manager, winning 38 trophies, including 13 league titles, five FA Cups, and two Champions League titles between 1986 and 2013. In the 1998–99 season, under Ferguson, the club became the first in the history of English football to achieve the European treble of the Premier League, FA Cup, and UEFA Champions League. In winning the UEFA Europa League under José Mourinho in 2016–17, they became one of five clubs to have won the original three main UEFA club competitions (the Champions League, Europa League and Cup Winners' Cup).

Manchester United's most successful manager is Sir Alex Ferguson who won 38 trophies including 13 league titles

summarization

### Instruction: Who was Manchester United's most successful manager? ### Context: Manchester United have won a record 20 League titles, 12 FA Cups, six League Cups, and a record 21 FA Community Shields. They have won the European Cup/UEFA Champions League three times, and the UEFA Europa League, the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup, the UEFA Super Cup, the Intercontinental Cup and the FIFA Club World Cup once each. In 1968, under the management of Matt Busby, 10 years after eight of the club's players were killed in the Munich air disaster, they became the first English club to win the European Cup. Sir Alex Ferguson is the club's longest-serving and most successful manager, winning 38 trophies, including 13 league titles, five FA Cups, and two Champions League titles between 1986 and 2013. In the 1998–99 season, under Ferguson, the club became the first in the history of English football to achieve the European treble of the Premier League, FA Cup, and UEFA Champions League. In winning the UEFA Europa League under José Mourinho in 2016–17, they became one of five clubs to have won the original three main UEFA club competitions (the Champions League, Europa League and Cup Winners' Cup). ### Answer: Manchester United's most successful manager is Sir Alex Ferguson who won 38 trophies including 13 league titles</s>

How is the movie Scarlet Days?

Scarlet Days is a 1919 American silent Western film produced and directed by D. W. Griffith and released through Paramount/Artcraft Pictures, Artcraft being an affiliate of Paramount. Richard Barthelmess stars in a role for which Griffith had screentested Rudolph Valentino. In today's time, this film is considered by many to be one of Griffith's worst films though it might have worked better as a short film. This film was unlike others created by D.W. Griffith. According to an article written for The Cincinnati Enquirer, written on the 16 of November 1919: "Unlike other recent Griffith production, Scarlet Days is a story of the old West, of the gold rush days of 49- Bret Harte transferred to the screen!" The Western film genre was expanding at this time and Scarlet Days fits into this category. Western films were popular for this time. Considered a lost film, a print was found in the State Film Archives of the Soviet Union, which donated it to the Museum of Modern Art in 1969. The film was screened to the public, for the first time since its rediscovery, on March 24 and 25, 1969. Scarlet Days was shown alongside another missing film, A Romance of Happy Valley, at the Museum of Modern Art's auditorium with titles still printed in Russian. English titles were later created by the Department of Film at the Museum of Modern Art.

Scarlet Days is a 1919 American silent Western film produced and directed by D.W. Griffith and released through Paramount/Artcraft Pictures. It is considered one of Griffith's worst films, but it is a story of the old West. A print was found in the State Film Archives of the Soviet Union and donated to the Museum of Modern Art in 1969. Titles were later created by the Department of Film at the Museum.

summarization

### Instruction: How is the movie Scarlet Days? ### Context: Scarlet Days is a 1919 American silent Western film produced and directed by D. W. Griffith and released through Paramount/Artcraft Pictures, Artcraft being an affiliate of Paramount. Richard Barthelmess stars in a role for which Griffith had screentested Rudolph Valentino. In today's time, this film is considered by many to be one of Griffith's worst films though it might have worked better as a short film. This film was unlike others created by D.W. Griffith. According to an article written for The Cincinnati Enquirer, written on the 16 of November 1919: "Unlike other recent Griffith production, Scarlet Days is a story of the old West, of the gold rush days of 49- Bret Harte transferred to the screen!" The Western film genre was expanding at this time and Scarlet Days fits into this category. Western films were popular for this time. Considered a lost film, a print was found in the State Film Archives of the Soviet Union, which donated it to the Museum of Modern Art in 1969. The film was screened to the public, for the first time since its rediscovery, on March 24 and 25, 1969. Scarlet Days was shown alongside another missing film, A Romance of Happy Valley, at the Museum of Modern Art's auditorium with titles still printed in Russian. English titles were later created by the Department of Film at the Museum of Modern Art. ### Answer: Scarlet Days is a 1919 American silent Western film produced and directed by D.W. Griffith and released through Paramount/Artcraft Pictures. It is considered one of Griffith's worst films, but it is a story of the old West. A print was found in the State Film Archives of the Soviet Union and donated to the Museum of Modern Art in 1969. Titles were later created by the Department of Film at the Museum.</s>

Write some important points regarding Family Justice Council using given text as a reference

The Family Justice Council, established in 2004, is an advisory, non-statutory, non-departmental public body sponsored by the Judicial Office of England and Wales. It provides independent expert advice, from an inter-disciplinary perspective, on the operation and reform of the family justice system to the Family Justice Board (jointly chaired by ministers from the Ministry of Justice and Department for Education) and Government. It is chaired by the President of the Family Division, and in August 2012 became part of the President's office.

1. The Judicial Office of England and Wales sponsors the Family Justice Council, an advisory, non-statutory, non-departmental public organisation founded in 2004. 2. It offers independent professional advice to the Family law Board, which is jointly chaired by ministers from the Ministry of Justice and Department for Education, as well as the Government on how to run and reform the family law system. 3. It is presided over by the Family Division President and joined the President's office in August 2012.

summarization

### Instruction: Write some important points regarding Family Justice Council using given text as a reference ### Context: The Family Justice Council, established in 2004, is an advisory, non-statutory, non-departmental public body sponsored by the Judicial Office of England and Wales. It provides independent expert advice, from an inter-disciplinary perspective, on the operation and reform of the family justice system to the Family Justice Board (jointly chaired by ministers from the Ministry of Justice and Department for Education) and Government. It is chaired by the President of the Family Division, and in August 2012 became part of the President's office. ### Answer: 1. The Judicial Office of England and Wales sponsors the Family Justice Council, an advisory, non-statutory, non-departmental public organisation founded in 2004. 2. It offers independent professional advice to the Family law Board, which is jointly chaired by ministers from the Ministry of Justice and Department for Education, as well as the Government on how to run and reform the family law system. 3. It is presided over by the Family Division President and joined the President's office in August 2012.</s>

give me a summary of the American revolution

n/a

The American Revolution was a five-year long war that started in 1775. The colonists of Great Britain were tired of being taxed endlessly by King George lll. The revolution started when some of Britain's forces assaulted revolutionary colonists at Lexington. This convinced many people to fight for the colonists. Finally, after many long battles and suffering, at the battle of Yorktown in 1781, Great Britain's forces surrendered to General Roshambo and General Washington. King George lll passed the Treaty of Paris in 1783. The colonists, now free from Britain, started America. The political system was also created, with George Washington becoming the first president.

summarization

### Instruction: give me a summary of the American revolution ### Context: n/a ### Answer: The American Revolution was a five-year long war that started in 1775. The colonists of Great Britain were tired of being taxed endlessly by King George lll. The revolution started when some of Britain's forces assaulted revolutionary colonists at Lexington. This convinced many people to fight for the colonists. Finally, after many long battles and suffering, at the battle of Yorktown in 1781, Great Britain's forces surrendered to General Roshambo and General Washington. King George lll passed the Treaty of Paris in 1783. The colonists, now free from Britain, started America. The political system was also created, with George Washington becoming the first president.</s>

Summarize the plot synopsis of the movie Real Genius in 3 sentences.

The CIA has covertly hired Professor Jerry Hathaway at Pacific Technical University to develop the power source for "Crossbow": a laser weapon precise enough to commit illegal political assassinations from outer space. Hathaway uses his position to recruit brilliant students to do the work for him but, aside from his graduate student and toady Kent, does not tell them the reason for their research. Hathaway's latest prospect is genius high school student Mitch Taylor. Despite his youth and inexperience, Hathaway makes Mitch the lead on the project due to his innovative and original ideas in the field of laser physics. Mitch is roomed with Chris Knight, another member of the team, a legend in the "National Physics Club" and one of Mitch's idols. Mitch's ideal of Chris is shattered, however, when Chris turns out to be more of a goof-off than a hard-working student. Meanwhile, Hathaway hopes Mitch will encourage Chris to straighten up his act and that their two exceptional minds can develop a proper power source. With the deadline quickly approaching, Mitch feels the pressure to complete the project while Chris continues in his carefree attitude. After inviting Mitch to a pool party to blow off steam, Kent reports this to Hathaway, who lambasts Mitch. Mitch breaks down and tearfully calls his parents, telling them he wants to go home. Kent records the call without Mitch's knowledge and later plays the recording over the school's public address system, humiliating Mitch. As Mitch begins packing to leave, Chris explains about the pressures of school and burdens of being highly intelligent by relating the history of former Pacific Tech student Lazlo Hollyfeld. Lazlo cracked under the pressure and disappeared (actually now living in the university's tunnels beneath Chris and Mitch's closet). Chris, fearing the same could happen to him, learned to lighten up and begin enjoying life. Mitch acquiesces to stay and they exact revenge on Kent by disassembling his car and reassembling it in his dorm room. Hathaway, angry about the still-incomplete project and Chris's attitude, informs Chris that he intends to fail him in his final course needed for graduation and will give a coveted after-graduation job, originally promised to Chris, to Kent instead, as well as take steps to ensure Chris will never find work in the field of laser physics. Chris is disheartened and Mitch must use Chris's same argument to convince him to stay. The two commit themselves to finishing the 5 megawatt laser and making sure Chris passes Hathaway's final exam. Kent sabotages their latest, nearly-successful apparatus. Though Chris knows Kent destroyed the laser, he can do nothing about it and is left to brood over the injustice; this inspires him to come up with a whole new system. The new solution works flawlessly, impressing Hathaway; he congratulates Chris and assures him that he will graduate. Chris and Mitch leave and celebrate, but Lazlo arrives to tell them his suspicions regarding the possible uses of such a laser. Realizing he is right, they return to the lab, but all the laser equipment has already been removed by Hathaway. They surreptitiously implant a radio transmitter in Kent's mouth and use it convince him he is speaking to Jesus. Kent divulges the location of the Air Force base where the equipment has been installed on a B-1 bomber. Chris and Mitch sneak onto the airbase and reprogram the coordinates of the target before going to Hathaway's home to set up a small prism. They gather outside Hathaway's home to watch as another school professor and a Congressman arrive, having been told of the test. Kent arrives and, though he was told by Jesus to remain outside, he goes inside. The laser test begins, with the new target being Hathaway's house. A very large bag of popcorn (Hathaway detests popcorn) is heated by the laser refracted by the prism, filling the house entirely and causing it to burst at the seams, with Kent riding a popcorn wave through the front door. Lazlo arrives in an RV—which he has won using mathematics in a blind sweepstakes contest—to tell them he is leaving. Later, Hathaway arrives to see what has become of his house.

The CIA hires Professor Jerry Hathaway to develop the power source for a laser powerful and precise enough to vaporize human targets from outer space. Hathaway's newly recruited genius Mitch, along with his previous prodigy, Chris, work together to develop the technology and succeed, only to later learn of Hathaway's true intention for their work. The students and their friends sabotage their own invention and teach Hathaway a lesson by having the laser to pop an enormous bag of popcorn in Jerry's house, knowing that he hates popcorn.

summarization

### Instruction: Summarize the plot synopsis of the movie Real Genius in 3 sentences. ### Context: The CIA has covertly hired Professor Jerry Hathaway at Pacific Technical University to develop the power source for "Crossbow": a laser weapon precise enough to commit illegal political assassinations from outer space. Hathaway uses his position to recruit brilliant students to do the work for him but, aside from his graduate student and toady Kent, does not tell them the reason for their research. Hathaway's latest prospect is genius high school student Mitch Taylor. Despite his youth and inexperience, Hathaway makes Mitch the lead on the project due to his innovative and original ideas in the field of laser physics. Mitch is roomed with Chris Knight, another member of the team, a legend in the "National Physics Club" and one of Mitch's idols. Mitch's ideal of Chris is shattered, however, when Chris turns out to be more of a goof-off than a hard-working student. Meanwhile, Hathaway hopes Mitch will encourage Chris to straighten up his act and that their two exceptional minds can develop a proper power source. With the deadline quickly approaching, Mitch feels the pressure to complete the project while Chris continues in his carefree attitude. After inviting Mitch to a pool party to blow off steam, Kent reports this to Hathaway, who lambasts Mitch. Mitch breaks down and tearfully calls his parents, telling them he wants to go home. Kent records the call without Mitch's knowledge and later plays the recording over the school's public address system, humiliating Mitch. As Mitch begins packing to leave, Chris explains about the pressures of school and burdens of being highly intelligent by relating the history of former Pacific Tech student Lazlo Hollyfeld. Lazlo cracked under the pressure and disappeared (actually now living in the university's tunnels beneath Chris and Mitch's closet). Chris, fearing the same could happen to him, learned to lighten up and begin enjoying life. Mitch acquiesces to stay and they exact revenge on Kent by disassembling his car and reassembling it in his dorm room. Hathaway, angry about the still-incomplete project and Chris's attitude, informs Chris that he intends to fail him in his final course needed for graduation and will give a coveted after-graduation job, originally promised to Chris, to Kent instead, as well as take steps to ensure Chris will never find work in the field of laser physics. Chris is disheartened and Mitch must use Chris's same argument to convince him to stay. The two commit themselves to finishing the 5 megawatt laser and making sure Chris passes Hathaway's final exam. Kent sabotages their latest, nearly-successful apparatus. Though Chris knows Kent destroyed the laser, he can do nothing about it and is left to brood over the injustice; this inspires him to come up with a whole new system. The new solution works flawlessly, impressing Hathaway; he congratulates Chris and assures him that he will graduate. Chris and Mitch leave and celebrate, but Lazlo arrives to tell them his suspicions regarding the possible uses of such a laser. Realizing he is right, they return to the lab, but all the laser equipment has already been removed by Hathaway. They surreptitiously implant a radio transmitter in Kent's mouth and use it convince him he is speaking to Jesus. Kent divulges the location of the Air Force base where the equipment has been installed on a B-1 bomber. Chris and Mitch sneak onto the airbase and reprogram the coordinates of the target before going to Hathaway's home to set up a small prism. They gather outside Hathaway's home to watch as another school professor and a Congressman arrive, having been told of the test. Kent arrives and, though he was told by Jesus to remain outside, he goes inside. The laser test begins, with the new target being Hathaway's house. A very large bag of popcorn (Hathaway detests popcorn) is heated by the laser refracted by the prism, filling the house entirely and causing it to burst at the seams, with Kent riding a popcorn wave through the front door. Lazlo arrives in an RV—which he has won using mathematics in a blind sweepstakes contest—to tell them he is leaving. Later, Hathaway arrives to see what has become of his house. ### Answer: The CIA hires Professor Jerry Hathaway to develop the power source for a laser powerful and precise enough to vaporize human targets from outer space. Hathaway's newly recruited genius Mitch, along with his previous prodigy, Chris, work together to develop the technology and succeed, only to later learn of Hathaway's true intention for their work. The students and their friends sabotage their own invention and teach Hathaway a lesson by having the laser to pop an enormous bag of popcorn in Jerry's house, knowing that he hates popcorn.</s>

Where was Samuel Loew born?

Samuel ben Nathan Ha-Levi Loew (Kelin or Kolin) (also "Lōw" or "Löw", Hebrew: שמואל בן נתן נטע הלוי קעלין; c. 1720–1806) was a Talmudist and Halakhist, best known for his work Machatzit HaShekel (Ashkenazi pronunciation, Machatzis HaShekel). The son of Nathan Naṭe ha-Levi, he was born at Kolín, Bohemia. For nearly 60 years he headed over a yeshiva at Boskovice (Boskowitz), Moravia, where he died on May 20, 1806. He had the title Av Beis Din of Boskowitz. Samuel had 3 sons and 3 daughters: Benjamin Ze'ev Ha-Levi (Wolf) Boskowitz (1746-1818), Jacob (c 1750-1833), Jehuda (c 1751-1800), Sara (Hinda) married Markus (Mordechai Lob) Wassertrilling of Boskovice, Esther married Bernhard Biach. His son Wolf Boskowitz delivered the sermon at his funeral. His descendant in the 5th generation, Dr. Max Anton Löw, a convert to Roman Catholicism, was the attorney of the anti-Semite Francis Deckert.[3

Samuel Loew was born at Kolin, Bohemia.

summarization

### Instruction: Where was Samuel Loew born? ### Context: Samuel ben Nathan Ha-Levi Loew (Kelin or Kolin) (also "Lōw" or "Löw", Hebrew: שמואל בן נתן נטע הלוי קעלין; c. 1720–1806) was a Talmudist and Halakhist, best known for his work Machatzit HaShekel (Ashkenazi pronunciation, Machatzis HaShekel). The son of Nathan Naṭe ha-Levi, he was born at Kolín, Bohemia. For nearly 60 years he headed over a yeshiva at Boskovice (Boskowitz), Moravia, where he died on May 20, 1806. He had the title Av Beis Din of Boskowitz. Samuel had 3 sons and 3 daughters: Benjamin Ze'ev Ha-Levi (Wolf) Boskowitz (1746-1818), Jacob (c 1750-1833), Jehuda (c 1751-1800), Sara (Hinda) married Markus (Mordechai Lob) Wassertrilling of Boskovice, Esther married Bernhard Biach. His son Wolf Boskowitz delivered the sermon at his funeral. His descendant in the 5th generation, Dr. Max Anton Löw, a convert to Roman Catholicism, was the attorney of the anti-Semite Francis Deckert.[3 ### Answer: Samuel Loew was born at Kolin, Bohemia.</s>

What is the relationship between Link and Zelda?

Link is a fictional character and the protagonist of Nintendo's video game franchise The Legend of Zelda. He was created by Japanese video game designer Shigeru Miyamoto. Link was introduced as the hero of the original 1986 The Legend of Zelda video game and has appeared in a total of 19 entries in the series, as well as a number of spin-offs. Common elements in the series include Link travelling through Hyrule whilst exploring dungeons, battling creatures and solving puzzles until he eventually defeats the series' primary antagonist, Ganon, and saves Princess Zelda. Throughout The Legend of Zelda series, Link has made multiple appearances in a variety of incarnations. He has been rendered in both 2D and 3D form and has been traditionally depicted in his signature green cap and tunic carrying a sword and shield. Over the course of the series, he appears as a child or young adult of the Hylian race, which originates from the fictional kingdom of Hyrule. Within Zelda lore, Link is the soul of a legendary hero that throughout history is reincarnated within a seemingly ordinary boy or man when the need arises for a new warrior to defeat the forces of evil. To defeat Ganon, Link usually obtains the mystical Master Sword or a similar legendary weapon, which is obtained after completing various trials. Over the course of his journey, he also acquires other magical items, including musical instruments and other weaponry. In addition to the main series, Link has appeared in other Nintendo media, including merchandise, comics and manga, and an animated television series. He is a prominent character in various spin-off games, including Hyrule Warriors, Cadence of Hyrule and Hyrule Warriors: Age of Calamity. He has appeared in entries of several other game franchises, including the Super Smash Bros. series, SoulCalibur II and Mario Kart 8, and has also been referenced in other games, such as The Elder Scrolls V: Skyrim. Alongside fellow Nintendo character Mario, Link is one of the most recognisable characters in the video game industry. He has been instrumental in the establishment of the role-playing video game genre as the protagonist of the series, which has influenced numerous other video games with its concepts of open world and nonlinear gameplay. According to Guinness World Records, Link is the most critically acclaimed videogame playable character and the most ubiquitous action-adventure video game character, surpassing Mario. He has been recognised by the Guinness World Records Gamer's Edition as the second best video game character of all time after Mario. Critics have also named him as one of the most influential video game characters of all time and one of Shigeru Miyamoto's most famous creations. Link is a brave, skilled warrior and the hero of The Legend of Zelda series. Over the course of the series, he has appeared in a variety of ages and forms, ranging from child to young adult, and in Twilight Princess, also appears in the form of a wolf. He displays the characteristic traits of the Hylian race, being of human form with elfin features, including pointed ears. Since the original 1986 The Legend of Zelda video game, he has been repeatedly depicted wearing his characteristic green cap and tunic. He has also appeared wearing other outfits, including a blue lobster shirt in The Wind Waker and his blue Champion's Tunic in Breath of the Wild. Link is described in the original game's instruction manual as a "young lad" and a traveller and in later games, such as Breath of the Wild, as a knight of Hyrule who is sworn to protect the kingdom and Princess Zelda. During gameplay, he carries a sword and a shield, but has also wielded a variety of other weapons, including bows, spears and axes. Link's signature weapon is the Master Sword, a powerful magic sword that has the ability to repel evil. He is also often depicted holding the Hylian Shield. These two components have become integral aspects of the character's identity. Each game in the series follows a similar story arc in which Link must take a journey that eventually leads him to recover the Master Sword, which makes him stronger in gameplay and enables him to defeat the series' main antagonist, Ganon. Throughout each game, Link is able to obtain various items during his adventures, which the player can then use in gameplay. Many of these objects possess magical properties that bestow specific abilities on Link, such as a magic cape that makes Link invisible when he wears it, or potions that replenish his health. Others have various practical purposes, such as the hookshot, which enables Link to pull items towards him, and bombs for detonation. Link has used various musical instruments on his travels, most notably, the Ocarina of Time, which when played is used for teleportation. In Breath of the Wild, Link's key tool is the Sheikah Slate, a handheld tablet featuring various runes that enable him to manipulate the game world. In Zelda lore, Link is the reincarnated soul of a hero, chosen by the goddess Hylia to protect the kingdom of Hyrule from Ganon and save Princess Zelda whenever the need arises. As the goddess' chosen hero, he is also the bearer of the Triforce of Courage, one of the three components that combine to form the Triforce, a sacred artefact and symbol of power. In several Zelda games, Link's main objective is to recover the fragments of the Triforce in order to defeat Ganon. Link's character is always depicted as a fearless hero and a "symbol of courage" who is willing to protect Hyrule for the sake of others. Relationships Link's relationships with the other main characters has been a defining aspect of the series. Within the fictional lore, Ganon, Zelda and Link represent three pieces of the Triforce, with Ganon representing Power, Zelda representing Wisdom and Link representing Courage. This trinity transcends the fictional timeline and dictates that the three characters are destined to be forever reincarnated in an endless battle for good and evil. Link's battle with Ganon established a fictional chronology that spans across the entire series and branches into three separate timelines. The three timelines originate at the end of Ocarina of Time when the timeline splits according to whether Link successfully defeats Ganon ("The Hero is Victorious") or fails to stop him (the "Fallen Hero" timeline). The official fictional chronology was revealed in Hyrule Historia, with Skyward Sword presented as the first game in the timeline. Skyward Sword establishes that the three main characters are destined to be connected in an endless cycle after the antagonist Demise curses Link and Zelda. Link's relationship with Zelda has been a core aspect of the series but has also been the subject of speculation. Throughout the games, the storylines have suggested the possibility of a romantic relationship between the two, but this has remained ambiguous. With each game release, the nature of their relationship has varied and Link has also been presented with other possible love interests. A romantic relationship between Link and Zelda is particularly evident in Skyward Sword and was also emphasised in an official "romance trailer" for the game. Aonuma commented on this relationship in an interview with Game Informer: "As far as the love story goes, it wasn't that we wanted to create a romance between Link and Zelda as much as we wanted the player to feel like this is a person who's very important to me, who I need to find. We used that hint of a romance between the two to tug at the heartstrings". In Breath of the Wild, the relationship between Link and Zelda is more complex and follows a story arc that begins with resentment and ends in a close bond with each willing to give their life for the other.

Link's relationship with Zelda has been developing as the story flows. In lore, Link, Zelda, and Ganon (the evil) represent three pieces Triforce, corresponding to Courage, Wisdom, and Power, respectively. The three are destined connected in an endless cycle. People speculate that Link and Zelda are in a possible romantic relationship. Although not told by the story, there is evidence in and out of the games that this relationship is true. The game producer, Eiji Aonuma, once said otherwise that it was not their intention to create a romantic relationship between the two, but to the most important person for each other.

summarization

### Instruction: What is the relationship between Link and Zelda? ### Context: Link is a fictional character and the protagonist of Nintendo's video game franchise The Legend of Zelda. He was created by Japanese video game designer Shigeru Miyamoto. Link was introduced as the hero of the original 1986 The Legend of Zelda video game and has appeared in a total of 19 entries in the series, as well as a number of spin-offs. Common elements in the series include Link travelling through Hyrule whilst exploring dungeons, battling creatures and solving puzzles until he eventually defeats the series' primary antagonist, Ganon, and saves Princess Zelda. Throughout The Legend of Zelda series, Link has made multiple appearances in a variety of incarnations. He has been rendered in both 2D and 3D form and has been traditionally depicted in his signature green cap and tunic carrying a sword and shield. Over the course of the series, he appears as a child or young adult of the Hylian race, which originates from the fictional kingdom of Hyrule. Within Zelda lore, Link is the soul of a legendary hero that throughout history is reincarnated within a seemingly ordinary boy or man when the need arises for a new warrior to defeat the forces of evil. To defeat Ganon, Link usually obtains the mystical Master Sword or a similar legendary weapon, which is obtained after completing various trials. Over the course of his journey, he also acquires other magical items, including musical instruments and other weaponry. In addition to the main series, Link has appeared in other Nintendo media, including merchandise, comics and manga, and an animated television series. He is a prominent character in various spin-off games, including Hyrule Warriors, Cadence of Hyrule and Hyrule Warriors: Age of Calamity. He has appeared in entries of several other game franchises, including the Super Smash Bros. series, SoulCalibur II and Mario Kart 8, and has also been referenced in other games, such as The Elder Scrolls V: Skyrim. Alongside fellow Nintendo character Mario, Link is one of the most recognisable characters in the video game industry. He has been instrumental in the establishment of the role-playing video game genre as the protagonist of the series, which has influenced numerous other video games with its concepts of open world and nonlinear gameplay. According to Guinness World Records, Link is the most critically acclaimed videogame playable character and the most ubiquitous action-adventure video game character, surpassing Mario. He has been recognised by the Guinness World Records Gamer's Edition as the second best video game character of all time after Mario. Critics have also named him as one of the most influential video game characters of all time and one of Shigeru Miyamoto's most famous creations. Link is a brave, skilled warrior and the hero of The Legend of Zelda series. Over the course of the series, he has appeared in a variety of ages and forms, ranging from child to young adult, and in Twilight Princess, also appears in the form of a wolf. He displays the characteristic traits of the Hylian race, being of human form with elfin features, including pointed ears. Since the original 1986 The Legend of Zelda video game, he has been repeatedly depicted wearing his characteristic green cap and tunic. He has also appeared wearing other outfits, including a blue lobster shirt in The Wind Waker and his blue Champion's Tunic in Breath of the Wild. Link is described in the original game's instruction manual as a "young lad" and a traveller and in later games, such as Breath of the Wild, as a knight of Hyrule who is sworn to protect the kingdom and Princess Zelda. During gameplay, he carries a sword and a shield, but has also wielded a variety of other weapons, including bows, spears and axes. Link's signature weapon is the Master Sword, a powerful magic sword that has the ability to repel evil. He is also often depicted holding the Hylian Shield. These two components have become integral aspects of the character's identity. Each game in the series follows a similar story arc in which Link must take a journey that eventually leads him to recover the Master Sword, which makes him stronger in gameplay and enables him to defeat the series' main antagonist, Ganon. Throughout each game, Link is able to obtain various items during his adventures, which the player can then use in gameplay. Many of these objects possess magical properties that bestow specific abilities on Link, such as a magic cape that makes Link invisible when he wears it, or potions that replenish his health. Others have various practical purposes, such as the hookshot, which enables Link to pull items towards him, and bombs for detonation. Link has used various musical instruments on his travels, most notably, the Ocarina of Time, which when played is used for teleportation. In Breath of the Wild, Link's key tool is the Sheikah Slate, a handheld tablet featuring various runes that enable him to manipulate the game world. In Zelda lore, Link is the reincarnated soul of a hero, chosen by the goddess Hylia to protect the kingdom of Hyrule from Ganon and save Princess Zelda whenever the need arises. As the goddess' chosen hero, he is also the bearer of the Triforce of Courage, one of the three components that combine to form the Triforce, a sacred artefact and symbol of power. In several Zelda games, Link's main objective is to recover the fragments of the Triforce in order to defeat Ganon. Link's character is always depicted as a fearless hero and a "symbol of courage" who is willing to protect Hyrule for the sake of others. Relationships Link's relationships with the other main characters has been a defining aspect of the series. Within the fictional lore, Ganon, Zelda and Link represent three pieces of the Triforce, with Ganon representing Power, Zelda representing Wisdom and Link representing Courage. This trinity transcends the fictional timeline and dictates that the three characters are destined to be forever reincarnated in an endless battle for good and evil. Link's battle with Ganon established a fictional chronology that spans across the entire series and branches into three separate timelines. The three timelines originate at the end of Ocarina of Time when the timeline splits according to whether Link successfully defeats Ganon ("The Hero is Victorious") or fails to stop him (the "Fallen Hero" timeline). The official fictional chronology was revealed in Hyrule Historia, with Skyward Sword presented as the first game in the timeline. Skyward Sword establishes that the three main characters are destined to be connected in an endless cycle after the antagonist Demise curses Link and Zelda. Link's relationship with Zelda has been a core aspect of the series but has also been the subject of speculation. Throughout the games, the storylines have suggested the possibility of a romantic relationship between the two, but this has remained ambiguous. With each game release, the nature of their relationship has varied and Link has also been presented with other possible love interests. A romantic relationship between Link and Zelda is particularly evident in Skyward Sword and was also emphasised in an official "romance trailer" for the game. Aonuma commented on this relationship in an interview with Game Informer: "As far as the love story goes, it wasn't that we wanted to create a romance between Link and Zelda as much as we wanted the player to feel like this is a person who's very important to me, who I need to find. We used that hint of a romance between the two to tug at the heartstrings". In Breath of the Wild, the relationship between Link and Zelda is more complex and follows a story arc that begins with resentment and ends in a close bond with each willing to give their life for the other. ### Answer: Link's relationship with Zelda has been developing as the story flows. In lore, Link, Zelda, and Ganon (the evil) represent three pieces Triforce, corresponding to Courage, Wisdom, and Power, respectively. The three are destined connected in an endless cycle. People speculate that Link and Zelda are in a possible romantic relationship. Although not told by the story, there is evidence in and out of the games that this relationship is true. The game producer, Eiji Aonuma, once said otherwise that it was not their intention to create a romantic relationship between the two, but to the most important person for each other.</s>

Can you give me a bulleted list of notable physical features of the beaver?

Beavers (genus Castor) are large, semiaquatic rodents of the Northern Hemisphere. There are two extant species: the North American beaver (Castor canadensis) and the Eurasian beaver (C. fiber). Beavers are the second-largest living rodents, after capybaras. Beavers have stout bodies with large heads, long chisel-like incisors, brown or gray fur, hand-like front feet, webbed back feet, and tails that are flat and scaly. The two species differ in skull and tail shape and fur color. Beavers can be found in a number of freshwater habitats, such as rivers, streams, lakes and ponds. They are herbivorous, consuming tree bark, aquatic plants, grasses and sedges.

Beaver Physical Features: - stout bodies - large heads - long chisel-like incisors - brown or gray fur - hand-like front feet - webbed back feet - flat and scaly tails

summarization

### Instruction: Can you give me a bulleted list of notable physical features of the beaver? ### Context: Beavers (genus Castor) are large, semiaquatic rodents of the Northern Hemisphere. There are two extant species: the North American beaver (Castor canadensis) and the Eurasian beaver (C. fiber). Beavers are the second-largest living rodents, after capybaras. Beavers have stout bodies with large heads, long chisel-like incisors, brown or gray fur, hand-like front feet, webbed back feet, and tails that are flat and scaly. The two species differ in skull and tail shape and fur color. Beavers can be found in a number of freshwater habitats, such as rivers, streams, lakes and ponds. They are herbivorous, consuming tree bark, aquatic plants, grasses and sedges. ### Answer: Beaver Physical Features: - stout bodies - large heads - long chisel-like incisors - brown or gray fur - hand-like front feet - webbed back feet - flat and scaly tails</s>

In the given text, List down some important points about Pope Adrian V

Pope Adrian V (Latin: Adrianus V; c. 1210/1220 – 18 August 1276), born Ottobuono de' Fieschi, was the head of the Catholic Church and ruler of the Papal States from 11 July 1276 to his death on 18 August 1276. He was an envoy of Pope Clement IV sent to England in May 1265 who successfully completed his task of resolving disputes between King Henry III of England and his barons. Adrian V was elected pope following the death of Innocent V, but died of natural illness before being ordained to the priesthood.

1. Pope Adrian V, sometimes known as Adrianus V, was the head of the Catholic Church and the ruler of the Papal States from July 11, 1276, until his death on August 18, 1276. Pope Adrian V was born Ottobuono de' Fieschi. 2. He was a papal ambassador sent to England in May 1265 by Pope Clement IV who was effective in reconciling conflicts between King Henry III of England and his lords. 3. Adrian V was chosen to succeed Innocent V as pope, but he passed away from a natural illness before receiving the sacrament of ordination.

summarization

### Instruction: In the given text, List down some important points about Pope Adrian V ### Context: Pope Adrian V (Latin: Adrianus V; c. 1210/1220 – 18 August 1276), born Ottobuono de' Fieschi, was the head of the Catholic Church and ruler of the Papal States from 11 July 1276 to his death on 18 August 1276. He was an envoy of Pope Clement IV sent to England in May 1265 who successfully completed his task of resolving disputes between King Henry III of England and his barons. Adrian V was elected pope following the death of Innocent V, but died of natural illness before being ordained to the priesthood. ### Answer: 1. Pope Adrian V, sometimes known as Adrianus V, was the head of the Catholic Church and the ruler of the Papal States from July 11, 1276, until his death on August 18, 1276. Pope Adrian V was born Ottobuono de' Fieschi. 2. He was a papal ambassador sent to England in May 1265 by Pope Clement IV who was effective in reconciling conflicts between King Henry III of England and his lords. 3. Adrian V was chosen to succeed Innocent V as pope, but he passed away from a natural illness before receiving the sacrament of ordination.</s>

Using given text as a reference, write some details about game Crashmo

Crashmo, known as Fallblox in Europe and Australia and as Hiku Otsu in Japan, is a puzzle video game developed by Intelligent Systems and published by Nintendo for the Nintendo 3DS via the Nintendo eShop. The game is a sequel to Pushmo and was released in Japan on October 31, 2012, in the PAL regions on November 15, 2012, and in North America on November 22, 2012.

1. Crashmo is a puzzle video game created by Intelligent Systems and released by Nintendo for the Nintendo 3DS via the Nintendo eShop. It is also known as Fallblox in Europe, Australia, and Japan, and as Hiku Otsu in North America. 2. The Pushmo sequel was made available in North America on November 22, 2012, the PAL countries on November 15, and Japan on October 31, 2012.

summarization

### Instruction: Using given text as a reference, write some details about game Crashmo ### Context: Crashmo, known as Fallblox in Europe and Australia and as Hiku Otsu in Japan, is a puzzle video game developed by Intelligent Systems and published by Nintendo for the Nintendo 3DS via the Nintendo eShop. The game is a sequel to Pushmo and was released in Japan on October 31, 2012, in the PAL regions on November 15, 2012, and in North America on November 22, 2012. ### Answer: 1. Crashmo is a puzzle video game created by Intelligent Systems and released by Nintendo for the Nintendo 3DS via the Nintendo eShop. It is also known as Fallblox in Europe, Australia, and Japan, and as Hiku Otsu in North America. 2. The Pushmo sequel was made available in North America on November 22, 2012, the PAL countries on November 15, and Japan on October 31, 2012.</s>

Can you give me the biography of Lia Cirio

Lia Cirio is an American ballet dancer. She is a principal dancer at Boston Ballet. Biography Cirio is half Filipino. She trained at Swarthmore Ballet Theatre and Central Pennsylvania Youth Ballet. At age 16, she joined Boston Ballet II. She joined the main company's corps de ballet in 2004, at age 16, and was the company's Princess Grace Award nominee the same year. Cirio was named second soloist in 2006 and soloist the following year. In 2008 and 2009, Cirio joined the Trey McIntyre Project, and toured with the company in the United States and the world. She returned to Boston Ballet in the 2009-10 season and was promoted to principal in 2010. She has danced roles such as Odette/Odile in Swan Lake and the title role in Cinderella. Cirio has also choreographed work for Boston Ballet's ChoreograpHER initiative. Cirio is the older sister of Jeffrey Cirio, a Lead Principal Dancer at English National Ballet. They have established an artistic collective called Cirio Collective in 2015.

Lia Cirio is an American ballet dancer. She is a principal dancer at Boston Ballet. Cirio is half Filipino. She trained at Swarthmore Ballet Theatre and Central Pennsylvania Youth Ballet. At age 16, she joined Boston Ballet II. She joined the main company's corps de ballet in 2004, at age 16, and was the company's Princess Grace Award nominee the same year. Cirio was named second soloist in 2006 and soloist the following year. In 2008 and 2009, Cirio joined the Trey McIntyre Project, and toured with the company in the United States and the world. She returned to Boston Ballet in the 2009-10 season and was promoted to principal in 2010. She has danced roles such as Odette/Odile in Swan Lake and the title role in Cinderella. Cirio has also choreographed work for Boston Ballet's ChoreograpHER initiative. Cirio is the older sister of Jeffrey Cirio, a Lead Principal Dancer at English National Ballet. They have established an artistic collective called Cirio Collective in 2015.

summarization

### Instruction: Can you give me the biography of Lia Cirio ### Context: Lia Cirio is an American ballet dancer. She is a principal dancer at Boston Ballet. Biography Cirio is half Filipino. She trained at Swarthmore Ballet Theatre and Central Pennsylvania Youth Ballet. At age 16, she joined Boston Ballet II. She joined the main company's corps de ballet in 2004, at age 16, and was the company's Princess Grace Award nominee the same year. Cirio was named second soloist in 2006 and soloist the following year. In 2008 and 2009, Cirio joined the Trey McIntyre Project, and toured with the company in the United States and the world. She returned to Boston Ballet in the 2009-10 season and was promoted to principal in 2010. She has danced roles such as Odette/Odile in Swan Lake and the title role in Cinderella. Cirio has also choreographed work for Boston Ballet's ChoreograpHER initiative. Cirio is the older sister of Jeffrey Cirio, a Lead Principal Dancer at English National Ballet. They have established an artistic collective called Cirio Collective in 2015. ### Answer: Lia Cirio is an American ballet dancer. She is a principal dancer at Boston Ballet. Cirio is half Filipino. She trained at Swarthmore Ballet Theatre and Central Pennsylvania Youth Ballet. At age 16, she joined Boston Ballet II. She joined the main company's corps de ballet in 2004, at age 16, and was the company's Princess Grace Award nominee the same year. Cirio was named second soloist in 2006 and soloist the following year. In 2008 and 2009, Cirio joined the Trey McIntyre Project, and toured with the company in the United States and the world. She returned to Boston Ballet in the 2009-10 season and was promoted to principal in 2010. She has danced roles such as Odette/Odile in Swan Lake and the title role in Cinderella. Cirio has also choreographed work for Boston Ballet's ChoreograpHER initiative. Cirio is the older sister of Jeffrey Cirio, a Lead Principal Dancer at English National Ballet. They have established an artistic collective called Cirio Collective in 2015.</s>

What's the main benefits of a Subaru Forester Wilderness?

Alongside the facelift model, Subaru released a new model called the Forester Wilderness for the North American market. It is intended to be a more off-road-oriented version of the Forester, and is positioned between the Limited and Touring trim levels in the Forester lineup. Visually, the Forester has more body cladding, and on the inside, copper-colored accents. It features a 0.5 inches (13 mm) lift for a total of 9.2 inches (230 mm) of ground clearance, the Wilderness also has all-terrain tires, a modified final drive ratio, and a stronger roof rack than previous models. Subaru's StarTex water-repellent seats are also standard. The Wilderness is powered by the same 2.5-liter FB25D naturally-aspirated four cylinder engine powering other North American market Foresters. The Wilderness uses an Enhanced Dual-Function X-Mode version. The X-Mode is upgraded and re-tuned, with settings for snow, dirt, deep snow and mud. Additional wheel-slip is allowed to occur, which provides an advantage in harsh driving conditions.

The Forester Wilderness provides 0.5 inches (13 mm) lift that increases ground clearance to 9.2 inches (230mm). The vehicle comes with all-terrain tires, modified final drive ratio, stronger roof rack, and water-repellent seats. The engine size is the same, but it includes an enhanced dual-function x-mode with additional wheel-slip allowance to handle harsh driving conditions in snow, dirt, deep snow, and mud.

summarization

### Instruction: What's the main benefits of a Subaru Forester Wilderness? ### Context: Alongside the facelift model, Subaru released a new model called the Forester Wilderness for the North American market. It is intended to be a more off-road-oriented version of the Forester, and is positioned between the Limited and Touring trim levels in the Forester lineup. Visually, the Forester has more body cladding, and on the inside, copper-colored accents. It features a 0.5 inches (13 mm) lift for a total of 9.2 inches (230 mm) of ground clearance, the Wilderness also has all-terrain tires, a modified final drive ratio, and a stronger roof rack than previous models. Subaru's StarTex water-repellent seats are also standard. The Wilderness is powered by the same 2.5-liter FB25D naturally-aspirated four cylinder engine powering other North American market Foresters. The Wilderness uses an Enhanced Dual-Function X-Mode version. The X-Mode is upgraded and re-tuned, with settings for snow, dirt, deep snow and mud. Additional wheel-slip is allowed to occur, which provides an advantage in harsh driving conditions. ### Answer: The Forester Wilderness provides 0.5 inches (13 mm) lift that increases ground clearance to 9.2 inches (230mm). The vehicle comes with all-terrain tires, modified final drive ratio, stronger roof rack, and water-repellent seats. The engine size is the same, but it includes an enhanced dual-function x-mode with additional wheel-slip allowance to handle harsh driving conditions in snow, dirt, deep snow, and mud.</s>

Provide me some details about United States attorneys with the given text as a reference.

United States attorneys are officials of the U.S. Department of Justice who serve as the chief federal law enforcement officers in each of the 94 U.S. federal judicial districts. Each U.S. attorney serves as the United States' chief federal criminal prosecutor in their judicial district and represents the U.S. federal government in civil litigation in federal and state court within their geographic jurisdiction. U.S. attorneys must be nominated by the President and confirmed by the Senate, after which they serve four-year terms.

1. In each of the 94 federal court districts in the United States, United States attorneys are representatives of the U.S. Department of Justice who act as the top federal law enforcement officials. 2. Each U.S. attorney represents the U.S. federal government in civil action in federal and state court within their geographic jurisdiction and acts as the country's top federal criminal prosecutor in their judicial district. 3. U.S. attorneys serve four-year terms after being appointed by the President and being confirmed by the Senate.

summarization

### Instruction: Provide me some details about United States attorneys with the given text as a reference. ### Context: United States attorneys are officials of the U.S. Department of Justice who serve as the chief federal law enforcement officers in each of the 94 U.S. federal judicial districts. Each U.S. attorney serves as the United States' chief federal criminal prosecutor in their judicial district and represents the U.S. federal government in civil litigation in federal and state court within their geographic jurisdiction. U.S. attorneys must be nominated by the President and confirmed by the Senate, after which they serve four-year terms. ### Answer: 1. In each of the 94 federal court districts in the United States, United States attorneys are representatives of the U.S. Department of Justice who act as the top federal law enforcement officials. 2. Each U.S. attorney represents the U.S. federal government in civil action in federal and state court within their geographic jurisdiction and acts as the country's top federal criminal prosecutor in their judicial district. 3. U.S. attorneys serve four-year terms after being appointed by the President and being confirmed by the Senate.</s>

Give me a one line summary about smelting

Smelting is a process of applying heat to an ore, to extract a base metal. It is a form of extractive metallurgy. It is used to extract many metals from their ores, including silver, iron, copper, and other base metals. Smelting uses heat and a chemical- reducing agent to decompose the ore, driving off other elements as gases or slag and leaving the metal base behind. The reducing agent is commonly a fossil fuel source of carbon, such as coke—or, in earlier times, charcoal.The oxygen in the ore binds to carbon at high temperatures as the chemical potential energy of the bonds in carbon dioxide (CO2) is lower than the bonds in the ore.

Smelting is the process of extracting metals from their ores by applying heat and a chemical-reducing agent to drive off non-wanted materials as gases and leaving the base (wanted) material behind.

summarization

### Instruction: Give me a one line summary about smelting ### Context: Smelting is a process of applying heat to an ore, to extract a base metal. It is a form of extractive metallurgy. It is used to extract many metals from their ores, including silver, iron, copper, and other base metals. Smelting uses heat and a chemical- reducing agent to decompose the ore, driving off other elements as gases or slag and leaving the metal base behind. The reducing agent is commonly a fossil fuel source of carbon, such as coke—or, in earlier times, charcoal.The oxygen in the ore binds to carbon at high temperatures as the chemical potential energy of the bonds in carbon dioxide (CO2) is lower than the bonds in the ore. ### Answer: Smelting is the process of extracting metals from their ores by applying heat and a chemical-reducing agent to drive off non-wanted materials as gases and leaving the base (wanted) material behind.</s>

Please list all of Taylor Swift's albums, the year each one was released, and the genre of the album if it is mentioned, according to the paragraph I give.

Taylor Swift (born December 13, 1989) is an American singer-songwriter. Her genre-spanning discography, songwriting and artistic reinventions have received critical praise and wide media coverage. Born in West Reading, Pennsylvania, Swift moved to Nashville at age 14 to become a country artist. She signed a songwriting deal with Sony/ATV Music Publishing in 2004 and a recording contract with Big Machine Records in 2005. Her 2006 self-titled debut album made her the first female country singer to write a U.S. platinum-certified album. Swift's next albums, Fearless (2008) and Speak Now (2010), explored country pop. The former's "Love Story" and "You Belong with Me" were the first country songs to top the U.S. pop and all-genre airplay charts, respectively. She experimented with rock and electronic styles on Red (2012), which featured her first Billboard Hot 100 number-one song, "We Are Never Ever Getting Back Together", and eschewed her country image in her synth-pop album, 1989 (2014), supported by chart-topping songs "Shake It Off", "Blank Space", and "Bad Blood". Media scrutiny inspired the urban-flavored Reputation (2017) and its number-one single "Look What You Made Me Do". Exiting Big Machine, Swift signed with Republic Records in 2018 and released her seventh studio album, Lover (2019), followed by the autobiographical documentary Miss Americana (2020). She ventured into indie folk and alternative rock in her 2020 albums Folklore and Evermore, whose singles "Cardigan" and "Willow" topped the Hot 100. Swift began re-recording her first six albums after a dispute over their masters, re-releasing two in 2021—Fearless (Taylor's Version) and Red (Taylor's Version). The latter's "All Too Well (10 Minute Version)" became the longest song to top the Hot 100. Her 2022 album Midnights and single "Anti-Hero" broke all-time streaming records. Swift has directed music videos and films, such as All Too Well: The Short Film (2021), and played supporting roles in others. Having sold over 200 million records globally, Swift is one of the best-selling musicians in history. She is the most streamed woman on Spotify, and the only act to have five albums open with over one million copies sold in the US. Among her accolades are 12 Grammy Awards, including three Album of the Year wins; an Emmy Award; 40 American Music Awards; 29 Billboard Music Awards; three IFPI Global Recording Artist of the Year awards; and 92 Guinness World Records. Swift has been featured in rankings such as Rolling Stone's 100 Greatest Songwriters of All Time, Billboard's Greatest of All Time Artists, the Time 100 and Forbes Celebrity 100. Honored with titles such as Artist of the Decade and Woman of the Decade, Swift is an advocate for artists' rights and women's empowerment. Her music is credited with influencing a generation of singer-songwriters.

Here is the list in the format of "album name: (year released) genre": Taylor Swift: (2006) country Fearless (2008): country pop Speak Now (2010): country pop Red (2012): rock and electronic 1989 (2014): synth-pop Reputation (2017): urban Lover (2019): not mentioned folklore (2020): indie folk and alternative rock evermore (2020): alternative rock

summarization

### Instruction: Please list all of Taylor Swift's albums, the year each one was released, and the genre of the album if it is mentioned, according to the paragraph I give. ### Context: Taylor Swift (born December 13, 1989) is an American singer-songwriter. Her genre-spanning discography, songwriting and artistic reinventions have received critical praise and wide media coverage. Born in West Reading, Pennsylvania, Swift moved to Nashville at age 14 to become a country artist. She signed a songwriting deal with Sony/ATV Music Publishing in 2004 and a recording contract with Big Machine Records in 2005. Her 2006 self-titled debut album made her the first female country singer to write a U.S. platinum-certified album. Swift's next albums, Fearless (2008) and Speak Now (2010), explored country pop. The former's "Love Story" and "You Belong with Me" were the first country songs to top the U.S. pop and all-genre airplay charts, respectively. She experimented with rock and electronic styles on Red (2012), which featured her first Billboard Hot 100 number-one song, "We Are Never Ever Getting Back Together", and eschewed her country image in her synth-pop album, 1989 (2014), supported by chart-topping songs "Shake It Off", "Blank Space", and "Bad Blood". Media scrutiny inspired the urban-flavored Reputation (2017) and its number-one single "Look What You Made Me Do". Exiting Big Machine, Swift signed with Republic Records in 2018 and released her seventh studio album, Lover (2019), followed by the autobiographical documentary Miss Americana (2020). She ventured into indie folk and alternative rock in her 2020 albums Folklore and Evermore, whose singles "Cardigan" and "Willow" topped the Hot 100. Swift began re-recording her first six albums after a dispute over their masters, re-releasing two in 2021—Fearless (Taylor's Version) and Red (Taylor's Version). The latter's "All Too Well (10 Minute Version)" became the longest song to top the Hot 100. Her 2022 album Midnights and single "Anti-Hero" broke all-time streaming records. Swift has directed music videos and films, such as All Too Well: The Short Film (2021), and played supporting roles in others. Having sold over 200 million records globally, Swift is one of the best-selling musicians in history. She is the most streamed woman on Spotify, and the only act to have five albums open with over one million copies sold in the US. Among her accolades are 12 Grammy Awards, including three Album of the Year wins; an Emmy Award; 40 American Music Awards; 29 Billboard Music Awards; three IFPI Global Recording Artist of the Year awards; and 92 Guinness World Records. Swift has been featured in rankings such as Rolling Stone's 100 Greatest Songwriters of All Time, Billboard's Greatest of All Time Artists, the Time 100 and Forbes Celebrity 100. Honored with titles such as Artist of the Decade and Woman of the Decade, Swift is an advocate for artists' rights and women's empowerment. Her music is credited with influencing a generation of singer-songwriters. ### Answer: Here is the list in the format of "album name: (year released) genre": Taylor Swift: (2006) country Fearless (2008): country pop Speak Now (2010): country pop Red (2012): rock and electronic 1989 (2014): synth-pop Reputation (2017): urban Lover (2019): not mentioned folklore (2020): indie folk and alternative rock evermore (2020): alternative rock</s>

What is game of Cricket?

Cricket is a bat-and-ball game played between two teams of eleven players on a field at the centre of which is a 22-yard (20-metre) pitch with a wicket at each end, each comprising two bails balanced on three stumps. The batting side scores runs by striking the ball bowled at one of the wickets with the bat and then running between the wickets, while the bowling and fielding side tries to prevent this (by preventing the ball from leaving the field, and getting the ball to either wicket) and dismiss each batter (so they are "out"). Means of dismissal include being bowled, when the ball hits the stumps and dislodges the bails, and by the fielding side either catching the ball after it is hit by the bat, but before it hits the ground, or hitting a wicket with the ball before a batter can cross the crease in front of the wicket. When ten batters have been dismissed, the innings ends and the teams swap roles. The game is adjudicated by two umpires, aided by a third umpire and match referee in international matches. They communicate with two off-field scorers who record the match's statistical information.

Cricket is a game played using a bat and a ball, with 11 players in each team. The surface in the centre of cricket filed is called Pitch which is 22 yards long. The batting starts with 2 player on the pitch, a batter and runner. Bowling side chooses a baller and rest of the 10 players are spread across the filed to catch the ball. Once ten batters from batting side are dismissed, the other sides gets opportunity to bat. The runs are scored by running between each end of the wicket and hitting the ball outside the boundary lines of the filed.

summarization

### Instruction: What is game of Cricket? ### Context: Cricket is a bat-and-ball game played between two teams of eleven players on a field at the centre of which is a 22-yard (20-metre) pitch with a wicket at each end, each comprising two bails balanced on three stumps. The batting side scores runs by striking the ball bowled at one of the wickets with the bat and then running between the wickets, while the bowling and fielding side tries to prevent this (by preventing the ball from leaving the field, and getting the ball to either wicket) and dismiss each batter (so they are "out"). Means of dismissal include being bowled, when the ball hits the stumps and dislodges the bails, and by the fielding side either catching the ball after it is hit by the bat, but before it hits the ground, or hitting a wicket with the ball before a batter can cross the crease in front of the wicket. When ten batters have been dismissed, the innings ends and the teams swap roles. The game is adjudicated by two umpires, aided by a third umpire and match referee in international matches. They communicate with two off-field scorers who record the match's statistical information. ### Answer: Cricket is a game played using a bat and a ball, with 11 players in each team. The surface in the centre of cricket filed is called Pitch which is 22 yards long. The batting starts with 2 player on the pitch, a batter and runner. Bowling side chooses a baller and rest of the 10 players are spread across the filed to catch the ball. Once ten batters from batting side are dismissed, the other sides gets opportunity to bat. The runs are scored by running between each end of the wicket and hitting the ball outside the boundary lines of the filed.</s>

From the following paragraph, what is the main conclusion about the halting problem?

In computability theory, the halting problem is the problem of determining, from a description of an arbitrary computer program and an input, whether the program will finish running, or continue to run forever. Alan Turing proved in 1936 that a general algorithm to solve the halting problem for all possible program–input pairs cannot exist. For any program f that might determine whether programs halt, a "pathological" program g, called with some input, can pass its own source and its input to f and then specifically do the opposite of what f predicts g will do. No f can exist that handles this case. A key part of the proof is a mathematical definition of a computer and program, which is known as a Turing machine; the halting problem is undecidable over Turing machines. It is one of the first cases of decision problems proven to be unsolvable. This proof is significant to practical computing efforts, defining a class of applications which no programming invention can possibly perform perfectly.

The halting problem is unsolvable.

summarization

### Instruction: From the following paragraph, what is the main conclusion about the halting problem? ### Context: In computability theory, the halting problem is the problem of determining, from a description of an arbitrary computer program and an input, whether the program will finish running, or continue to run forever. Alan Turing proved in 1936 that a general algorithm to solve the halting problem for all possible program–input pairs cannot exist. For any program f that might determine whether programs halt, a "pathological" program g, called with some input, can pass its own source and its input to f and then specifically do the opposite of what f predicts g will do. No f can exist that handles this case. A key part of the proof is a mathematical definition of a computer and program, which is known as a Turing machine; the halting problem is undecidable over Turing machines. It is one of the first cases of decision problems proven to be unsolvable. This proof is significant to practical computing efforts, defining a class of applications which no programming invention can possibly perform perfectly. ### Answer: The halting problem is unsolvable.</s>

Tell me about the merger history of the Swiss bank UBS

Swiss Bank Corporation was a Swiss investment bank and financial services company located in Switzerland. Prior to its merger, the bank was the third largest in Switzerland with over CHF 300 billion of assets and CHF 11.7 billion of equity. Throughout the 1990s, SBC engaged in a large growth initiative, shifting its focus from traditional commercial banking into investment banking, in an effort to match its larger Swiss rival Credit Suisse. As part of this strategy, SBC acquired US-based investment bank Dillon Read & Co. as well as London-based merchant bank S.G. Warburg in the mid-1990s. SBC also acquired Chicago-based Brinson Partners and O'Connor & Associates. These acquisitions formed the basis for a global investment banking business. In 1998, SBC merged with Union Bank of Switzerland to form UBS, the largest bank in Europe and the second largest bank in the world. The company's logo, which featured three keys, symbolizing "confidence, security, and discretion", was adopted by UBS after the 1998 merger. Although the combination of the two banks was billed as a merger of equals, it quickly became evident that from a management perspective, it was SBC that was buying UBS as nearly 80% of the top management positions were filled by legacy Swiss Bank professionals. Today, what was SBC forms the core of many of UBS's businesses, particularly UBS Investment Bank.

The Swiss Bank Corporation was a Swiss investment bank and financial services company located in Switzerland. Prior to its merger, the bank was the third largest in Switzerland with over CHF 300 billion of assets and CHF 11.7 billion of equity. Throughout the 1990s, SBC engaged in a large growth initiative, shifting its focus from traditional commercial banking into investment banking, in an effort to match its larger Swiss rival Credit Suisse. As part of this strategy, SBC acquired US-based investment bank Dillon Read & Co. as well as London-based merchant bank S.G. Warburg in the mid-1990s. SBC also acquired Chicago-based Brinson Partners and O'Connor & Associates. These acquisitions formed the basis for a global investment banking business. In 1998, SBC merged with Union Bank of Switzerland to form UBS, the largest bank in Europe and the second largest bank in the world. The company's logo, which featured three keys, symbolizing "confidence, security, and discretion", was adopted by UBS after the 1998 merger. Although the combination of the two banks was billed as a merger of equals, it quickly became evident that from a management perspective, it was SBC that was buying UBS as nearly 80% of the top management positions were filled by legacy Swiss Bank professionals. Today, what was SBC forms the core of many of UBS's businesses, particularly UBS Investment Bank.

summarization

### Instruction: Tell me about the merger history of the Swiss bank UBS ### Context: Swiss Bank Corporation was a Swiss investment bank and financial services company located in Switzerland. Prior to its merger, the bank was the third largest in Switzerland with over CHF 300 billion of assets and CHF 11.7 billion of equity. Throughout the 1990s, SBC engaged in a large growth initiative, shifting its focus from traditional commercial banking into investment banking, in an effort to match its larger Swiss rival Credit Suisse. As part of this strategy, SBC acquired US-based investment bank Dillon Read & Co. as well as London-based merchant bank S.G. Warburg in the mid-1990s. SBC also acquired Chicago-based Brinson Partners and O'Connor & Associates. These acquisitions formed the basis for a global investment banking business. In 1998, SBC merged with Union Bank of Switzerland to form UBS, the largest bank in Europe and the second largest bank in the world. The company's logo, which featured three keys, symbolizing "confidence, security, and discretion", was adopted by UBS after the 1998 merger. Although the combination of the two banks was billed as a merger of equals, it quickly became evident that from a management perspective, it was SBC that was buying UBS as nearly 80% of the top management positions were filled by legacy Swiss Bank professionals. Today, what was SBC forms the core of many of UBS's businesses, particularly UBS Investment Bank. ### Answer: The Swiss Bank Corporation was a Swiss investment bank and financial services company located in Switzerland. Prior to its merger, the bank was the third largest in Switzerland with over CHF 300 billion of assets and CHF 11.7 billion of equity. Throughout the 1990s, SBC engaged in a large growth initiative, shifting its focus from traditional commercial banking into investment banking, in an effort to match its larger Swiss rival Credit Suisse. As part of this strategy, SBC acquired US-based investment bank Dillon Read & Co. as well as London-based merchant bank S.G. Warburg in the mid-1990s. SBC also acquired Chicago-based Brinson Partners and O'Connor & Associates. These acquisitions formed the basis for a global investment banking business. In 1998, SBC merged with Union Bank of Switzerland to form UBS, the largest bank in Europe and the second largest bank in the world. The company's logo, which featured three keys, symbolizing "confidence, security, and discretion", was adopted by UBS after the 1998 merger. Although the combination of the two banks was billed as a merger of equals, it quickly became evident that from a management perspective, it was SBC that was buying UBS as nearly 80% of the top management positions were filled by legacy Swiss Bank professionals. Today, what was SBC forms the core of many of UBS's businesses, particularly UBS Investment Bank.</s>

Who is Juliette Roche?

Juliette Roche (1884–1980), also known as Juliette Roche Gleizes, was a French painter and writer who associated with members of the Cubist and Dada movements. She was married to the artist Albert Gleizes. She was born in 1884 to a wealthy Parisian family. Her father, Jules Roche, was a prominent member of both the French government and avant-garde art world. Other strong connections to the art world were manifested in her relationships with her godmother, Élisabeth, Countess Greffulhe, and her father's godson, Jean Cocteau. Juliette Roche studied painting at the Académie Ranson in Paris, with the support of her father. There, she was introduced to the artistic style of Les Nabis. In her poetic and pictorial work she showed profiles of independent women capable of self-expression. In 1913, she exhibited at the Salon des Indépendants and began writing poetry, inserting phrases, such as advertising slogans; experimenting with typographic elements. In 1914 she held her first solo exhibition at the Bernheim-Jeune gallery. When the First World War broke out, she traveled to New York City with her soon to be husband, the Cubist artist Albert Gleizes, who she met through the intermediary of Ricciotto Canudo, a film theoretician who published an avant-garde magazine Montjoie!, promoting Cubism. Juliette Roche and Albert Gleizes were married in September 1915. In New York, she took part in Dada activities with Marcel Duchamp and Francis Picabia, The Gleizes' then traveled to Barcelona to exhibit in the Galeries Dalmau before returning to New York. collaborating with Duchamp in the preparation of the first exhibition of the Society of Independent Artists of 1917, and Duchamp submitted his infamous readymade Fountain. In 1919, she returned to Paris and began writing La minéralisation de Dudley Craving Mac Adam, published in 1924, a story that tells of the adventures of Ather Cravan and other artists in exile in New York. In 1920-21, she wrote État... Colloidal, published by the Chilean journalist Vicente Huidobro in the magazine Creación. In 1927, together with Albert Gleizes, they founded the Moly-Sabata , a residence of artists in Sablons, which offered studios and workshops. She continued to exhibit the rest of his life in group exhibitions.

Juliette Roche was born in 1884 and was a French painter and writer. She was married to the artist Albert Gleizes. She was also the founder of Moly-Sabata, a residence of artists in Sablons.

summarization

### Instruction: Who is Juliette Roche? ### Context: Juliette Roche (1884–1980), also known as Juliette Roche Gleizes, was a French painter and writer who associated with members of the Cubist and Dada movements. She was married to the artist Albert Gleizes. She was born in 1884 to a wealthy Parisian family. Her father, Jules Roche, was a prominent member of both the French government and avant-garde art world. Other strong connections to the art world were manifested in her relationships with her godmother, Élisabeth, Countess Greffulhe, and her father's godson, Jean Cocteau. Juliette Roche studied painting at the Académie Ranson in Paris, with the support of her father. There, she was introduced to the artistic style of Les Nabis. In her poetic and pictorial work she showed profiles of independent women capable of self-expression. In 1913, she exhibited at the Salon des Indépendants and began writing poetry, inserting phrases, such as advertising slogans; experimenting with typographic elements. In 1914 she held her first solo exhibition at the Bernheim-Jeune gallery. When the First World War broke out, she traveled to New York City with her soon to be husband, the Cubist artist Albert Gleizes, who she met through the intermediary of Ricciotto Canudo, a film theoretician who published an avant-garde magazine Montjoie!, promoting Cubism. Juliette Roche and Albert Gleizes were married in September 1915. In New York, she took part in Dada activities with Marcel Duchamp and Francis Picabia, The Gleizes' then traveled to Barcelona to exhibit in the Galeries Dalmau before returning to New York. collaborating with Duchamp in the preparation of the first exhibition of the Society of Independent Artists of 1917, and Duchamp submitted his infamous readymade Fountain. In 1919, she returned to Paris and began writing La minéralisation de Dudley Craving Mac Adam, published in 1924, a story that tells of the adventures of Ather Cravan and other artists in exile in New York. In 1920-21, she wrote État... Colloidal, published by the Chilean journalist Vicente Huidobro in the magazine Creación. In 1927, together with Albert Gleizes, they founded the Moly-Sabata , a residence of artists in Sablons, which offered studios and workshops. She continued to exhibit the rest of his life in group exhibitions. ### Answer: Juliette Roche was born in 1884 and was a French painter and writer. She was married to the artist Albert Gleizes. She was also the founder of Moly-Sabata, a residence of artists in Sablons.</s>

What is Skyrim?

The game is set 200 years after the events of Oblivion, and takes place in Skyrim, the northernmost province of Tamriel. Its main story focuses on the player's character, the Dragonborn, on their quest to defeat Alduin the World-Eater, a dragon who is prophesied to destroy the world. Over the course of the game, the player completes quests and develops the character by improving skills. The game continues the open world tradition of its predecessors by allowing the player to travel anywhere in the game world at any time, and to ignore or postpone the main storyline indefinitely.

Skyrim is a medieval fantasy game based in the fictional world of Tamriel. With it being the fifth game in the Elder Scrolls franchise, it has plenty of lore to draw upon. Like its predecessors, the game is an open world RPG with plenty of quests to do, monsters to kill, items to loot, skills to level and weapons to craft. The map and setting of Skyrim is heavily influenced by Norse mythology. It has become one of the most famous games to be created by Bethesda.

summarization

### Instruction: What is Skyrim? ### Context: The game is set 200 years after the events of Oblivion, and takes place in Skyrim, the northernmost province of Tamriel. Its main story focuses on the player's character, the Dragonborn, on their quest to defeat Alduin the World-Eater, a dragon who is prophesied to destroy the world. Over the course of the game, the player completes quests and develops the character by improving skills. The game continues the open world tradition of its predecessors by allowing the player to travel anywhere in the game world at any time, and to ignore or postpone the main storyline indefinitely. ### Answer: Skyrim is a medieval fantasy game based in the fictional world of Tamriel. With it being the fifth game in the Elder Scrolls franchise, it has plenty of lore to draw upon. Like its predecessors, the game is an open world RPG with plenty of quests to do, monsters to kill, items to loot, skills to level and weapons to craft. The map and setting of Skyrim is heavily influenced by Norse mythology. It has become one of the most famous games to be created by Bethesda.</s>

Who is Michael Jackson?

Michael Joseph Jackson (August 29, 1958 – June 25, 2009) was an American singer, songwriter, dancer, and philanthropist. Dubbed the "King of Pop", he is regarded as one of the most significant cultural figures of the 20th century.

Michael Joseph Jackson (August 29, 1958 – June 25, 2009) was an American singer, songwriter, dancer, and philanthropist. Dubbed the "King of Pop", he is regarded as one of the most significant cultural figures of the 20th century. Over a four-decade career, his contributions to music, dance, and fashion, along with his publicized personal life, made him a global figure in popular culture. Jackson influenced artists across many music genres; through stage and video performances, he popularized complicated dance moves such as the moonwalk, to which he gave the name, as well as the robot. The eighth child of the Jackson family, Jackson made his public debut in 1964 with his older brothers Jackie, Tito, Jermaine, and Marlon as a member of the Jackson 5 (later known as the Jacksons). Jackson began his solo career in 1971 while at Motown Records. He became a solo star with his 1979 album Off the Wall. His music videos, including those for "Beat It", "Billie Jean", and "Thriller" from his 1982 album Thriller, are credited with breaking racial barriers and transforming the medium into an artform and promotional tool. He helped propel the success of MTV and continued to innovate with videos for the albums Bad (1987), Dangerous (1991), HIStory: Past, Present and Future, Book I (1995), and Invincible (2001). Thriller became the best-selling album of all time, while Bad was the first album to produce five US Billboard Hot 100 number-one singles. From the late 1980s, Jackson became a figure of controversy and speculation due to his changing appearance, relationships, behavior, and lifestyle. In 1993, he was accused of sexually abusing the child of a family friend. The lawsuit was settled out of civil court; Jackson was not indicted due to lack of evidence. In 2005, he was tried and acquitted of further child sexual abuse allegations and several other charges. The FBI found no evidence of criminal conduct by Jackson in either case. In 2009, while he was preparing for a series of comeback concerts, This Is It, Jackson died from an overdose of propofol administered by his personal physician, Conrad Murray, who was convicted in 2011 of involuntary manslaughter. His death triggered reactions around the world, creating unprecedented surges of Internet traffic and a spike in sales of his music. A televised memorial service for Jackson, held at the Staples Center in Los Angeles, was viewed by more than an estimated 2.5 billion people globally. Jackson is one of the best-selling music artists of all time, with estimated sales of over 400 million records worldwide. He had 13 Billboard Hot 100 number-one singles (third highest of any artist in the Hot 100 era) and was the first artist to have a top-ten single in the Billboard Hot 100 in five different decades. His honors include 15 Grammy Awards, 6 Brit Awards, a Golden Globe Award, and 39 Guinness World Records, including the "Most Successful Entertainer of All Time". Jackson's inductions include the Rock and Roll Hall of Fame (twice), the Vocal Group Hall of Fame, the Songwriters Hall of Fame, the Dance Hall of Fame (the only recording artist to be inducted), and the Rhythm and Blues Music Hall of Fame.

summarization

### Instruction: Who is Michael Jackson? ### Context: Michael Joseph Jackson (August 29, 1958 – June 25, 2009) was an American singer, songwriter, dancer, and philanthropist. Dubbed the "King of Pop", he is regarded as one of the most significant cultural figures of the 20th century. ### Answer: Michael Joseph Jackson (August 29, 1958 – June 25, 2009) was an American singer, songwriter, dancer, and philanthropist. Dubbed the "King of Pop", he is regarded as one of the most significant cultural figures of the 20th century. Over a four-decade career, his contributions to music, dance, and fashion, along with his publicized personal life, made him a global figure in popular culture. Jackson influenced artists across many music genres; through stage and video performances, he popularized complicated dance moves such as the moonwalk, to which he gave the name, as well as the robot. The eighth child of the Jackson family, Jackson made his public debut in 1964 with his older brothers Jackie, Tito, Jermaine, and Marlon as a member of the Jackson 5 (later known as the Jacksons). Jackson began his solo career in 1971 while at Motown Records. He became a solo star with his 1979 album Off the Wall. His music videos, including those for "Beat It", "Billie Jean", and "Thriller" from his 1982 album Thriller, are credited with breaking racial barriers and transforming the medium into an artform and promotional tool. He helped propel the success of MTV and continued to innovate with videos for the albums Bad (1987), Dangerous (1991), HIStory: Past, Present and Future, Book I (1995), and Invincible (2001). Thriller became the best-selling album of all time, while Bad was the first album to produce five US Billboard Hot 100 number-one singles. From the late 1980s, Jackson became a figure of controversy and speculation due to his changing appearance, relationships, behavior, and lifestyle. In 1993, he was accused of sexually abusing the child of a family friend. The lawsuit was settled out of civil court; Jackson was not indicted due to lack of evidence. In 2005, he was tried and acquitted of further child sexual abuse allegations and several other charges. The FBI found no evidence of criminal conduct by Jackson in either case. In 2009, while he was preparing for a series of comeback concerts, This Is It, Jackson died from an overdose of propofol administered by his personal physician, Conrad Murray, who was convicted in 2011 of involuntary manslaughter. His death triggered reactions around the world, creating unprecedented surges of Internet traffic and a spike in sales of his music. A televised memorial service for Jackson, held at the Staples Center in Los Angeles, was viewed by more than an estimated 2.5 billion people globally. Jackson is one of the best-selling music artists of all time, with estimated sales of over 400 million records worldwide. He had 13 Billboard Hot 100 number-one singles (third highest of any artist in the Hot 100 era) and was the first artist to have a top-ten single in the Billboard Hot 100 in five different decades. His honors include 15 Grammy Awards, 6 Brit Awards, a Golden Globe Award, and 39 Guinness World Records, including the "Most Successful Entertainer of All Time". Jackson's inductions include the Rock and Roll Hall of Fame (twice), the Vocal Group Hall of Fame, the Songwriters Hall of Fame, the Dance Hall of Fame (the only recording artist to be inducted), and the Rhythm and Blues Music Hall of Fame.</s>

What is relational database

A relational database is a (most commonly digital) database based on the relational model of data, as proposed by E. F. Codd in 1970. A system used to maintain relational databases is a relational database management system (RDBMS). Many relational database systems are equipped with the option of using SQL (Structured Query Language) for querying and updating the database.

Relational Databases are based on relational data models designed to store data in rows & columns and in a tabular format. RDBMS is famous for its SQL (Structured Query Language), and can fit to any tech stack. RDBMS is mostly meant for transactional use cases, OLTP with the ability to process data in milliseconds. A lot of RDMBS are available like MySQL, Postgres, AuroraDB etc.

summarization

### Instruction: What is relational database ### Context: A relational database is a (most commonly digital) database based on the relational model of data, as proposed by E. F. Codd in 1970. A system used to maintain relational databases is a relational database management system (RDBMS). Many relational database systems are equipped with the option of using SQL (Structured Query Language) for querying and updating the database. ### Answer: Relational Databases are based on relational data models designed to store data in rows & columns and in a tabular format. RDBMS is famous for its SQL (Structured Query Language), and can fit to any tech stack. RDBMS is mostly meant for transactional use cases, OLTP with the ability to process data in milliseconds. A lot of RDMBS are available like MySQL, Postgres, AuroraDB etc.</s>

Can you extract the 5 most important characteristics of the moon from this literature in a single paragraph?

The Moon is Earth's only natural satellite. It is the fifth largest satellite in the Solar System and the largest and most massive relative to its parent planet, with a diameter about one-quarter that of Earth (comparable to the width of Australia). The Moon is a planetary-mass object with a differentiated rocky body, making it a satellite planet under the geophysical definitions of the term and larger than all known dwarf planets of the Solar System.It lacks any significant atmosphere, hydrosphere, or magnetic field. Its surface gravity is about one-sixth of Earth's at 0.1654 g, with Jupiter's moon Io being the only satellite in the Solar System known to have a higher surface gravity and density. The Moon orbits Earth at an average distance of 384,400 km (238,900 mi), or about 30 times Earth's diameter. Its gravitational influence is the main driver of Earth's tides and very slowly lengthens Earth's day. The Moon's orbit around Earth has a sidereal period of 27.3 days. During each synodic period of 29.5 days, the amount of visible surface illuminated by the Sun varies from none up to 100%, resulting in lunar phases that form the basis for the months of a lunar calendar. The Moon is tidally locked to Earth, which means that the length of a full rotation of the Moon on its own axis causes its same side (the near side) to always face Earth, and the somewhat longer lunar day is the same as the synodic period. However, 59% of the total lunar surface can be seen from Earth through cyclical shifts in perspective known as libration. The most widely accepted origin explanation posits that the Moon formed 4.51 billion years ago, not long after Earth, out of the debris from a giant impact between the planet and a hypothesized Mars-sized body called Theia. It then receded to a wider orbit because of tidal interaction with the Earth. The near side of the Moon is marked by dark volcanic maria ("seas"), which fill the spaces between bright ancient crustal highlands and prominent impact craters. Most of the large impact basins and mare surfaces were in place by the end of the Imbrian period, some three billion years ago. The lunar surface is fairly non-reflective, with the reflectance of lunar soil being comparable to that of asphalt. However, due to its large angular diameter, the full moon is the brightest celestial object in the night sky. The Moon's apparent size is nearly the same as that of the Sun, allowing it to cover the Sun almost completely during a total solar eclipse. Both the Moon's prominence in Earth's sky and its regular cycle of phases have provided cultural references and influences for human societies throughout history. Such influences can be found in language, calendar systems, art, and mythology. The first artificial object to reach the Moon was the Soviet Union's uncrewed Luna 2 spacecraft in 1959; this was followed by the first successful soft landing by Luna 9 in 1966. The only human lunar missions to date have been those of the United States' Apollo program, which landed twelve men on the surface between 1969 and 1972. These and later uncrewed missions returned lunar rocks that have been used to develop a detailed geological understanding of the Moon's origins, internal structure, and subsequent history. The Moon is the only celestial body visited by humans.

The moon is the unique earth satellite, approximately a fourth of earth's size, 4.51 years old, only celestial body visited by humans, and orbit around earth in 27.3 days.

summarization

### Instruction: Can you extract the 5 most important characteristics of the moon from this literature in a single paragraph? ### Context: The Moon is Earth's only natural satellite. It is the fifth largest satellite in the Solar System and the largest and most massive relative to its parent planet, with a diameter about one-quarter that of Earth (comparable to the width of Australia). The Moon is a planetary-mass object with a differentiated rocky body, making it a satellite planet under the geophysical definitions of the term and larger than all known dwarf planets of the Solar System.It lacks any significant atmosphere, hydrosphere, or magnetic field. Its surface gravity is about one-sixth of Earth's at 0.1654 g, with Jupiter's moon Io being the only satellite in the Solar System known to have a higher surface gravity and density. The Moon orbits Earth at an average distance of 384,400 km (238,900 mi), or about 30 times Earth's diameter. Its gravitational influence is the main driver of Earth's tides and very slowly lengthens Earth's day. The Moon's orbit around Earth has a sidereal period of 27.3 days. During each synodic period of 29.5 days, the amount of visible surface illuminated by the Sun varies from none up to 100%, resulting in lunar phases that form the basis for the months of a lunar calendar. The Moon is tidally locked to Earth, which means that the length of a full rotation of the Moon on its own axis causes its same side (the near side) to always face Earth, and the somewhat longer lunar day is the same as the synodic period. However, 59% of the total lunar surface can be seen from Earth through cyclical shifts in perspective known as libration. The most widely accepted origin explanation posits that the Moon formed 4.51 billion years ago, not long after Earth, out of the debris from a giant impact between the planet and a hypothesized Mars-sized body called Theia. It then receded to a wider orbit because of tidal interaction with the Earth. The near side of the Moon is marked by dark volcanic maria ("seas"), which fill the spaces between bright ancient crustal highlands and prominent impact craters. Most of the large impact basins and mare surfaces were in place by the end of the Imbrian period, some three billion years ago. The lunar surface is fairly non-reflective, with the reflectance of lunar soil being comparable to that of asphalt. However, due to its large angular diameter, the full moon is the brightest celestial object in the night sky. The Moon's apparent size is nearly the same as that of the Sun, allowing it to cover the Sun almost completely during a total solar eclipse. Both the Moon's prominence in Earth's sky and its regular cycle of phases have provided cultural references and influences for human societies throughout history. Such influences can be found in language, calendar systems, art, and mythology. The first artificial object to reach the Moon was the Soviet Union's uncrewed Luna 2 spacecraft in 1959; this was followed by the first successful soft landing by Luna 9 in 1966. The only human lunar missions to date have been those of the United States' Apollo program, which landed twelve men on the surface between 1969 and 1972. These and later uncrewed missions returned lunar rocks that have been used to develop a detailed geological understanding of the Moon's origins, internal structure, and subsequent history. The Moon is the only celestial body visited by humans. ### Answer: The moon is the unique earth satellite, approximately a fourth of earth's size, 4.51 years old, only celestial body visited by humans, and orbit around earth in 27.3 days.</s>

List down some points about military base from the given passage.

A military base is a facility directly owned and operated by or for the military or one of its branches that shelters military equipment and personnel, and facilitates training and operations. A military base always provides accommodations for one or more units, but it may also be used as a command center, training ground or proving ground. In most cases, military bases rely on outside help to operate. However, certain complex bases are able to endure on their own for long periods because they are able to provide food, water and other necessities for their inhabitants while under siege. Bases for military aviation are called military air bases, or simply "air bases". Bases for military ships are called naval bases.

1. A military base is a structure that is directly owned and run by or for the military or one of its branches, houses military people and equipment, and aids in operations and training. 2. A military base may serve as a command post, a training area, or a proving ground in addition to housing one or more units. 3. Military bases typically rely on outside assistance to function. 4. However, some sophisticated bases can survive on their own for extended periods of time because they can supply their residents with food, water, and other essentials even when they are under attack. 5. Military air bases, or simply "air bases," are bases for military aviation. 6. Naval bases are bases for military ships.

summarization

### Instruction: List down some points about military base from the given passage. ### Context: A military base is a facility directly owned and operated by or for the military or one of its branches that shelters military equipment and personnel, and facilitates training and operations. A military base always provides accommodations for one or more units, but it may also be used as a command center, training ground or proving ground. In most cases, military bases rely on outside help to operate. However, certain complex bases are able to endure on their own for long periods because they are able to provide food, water and other necessities for their inhabitants while under siege. Bases for military aviation are called military air bases, or simply "air bases". Bases for military ships are called naval bases. ### Answer: 1. A military base is a structure that is directly owned and run by or for the military or one of its branches, houses military people and equipment, and aids in operations and training. 2. A military base may serve as a command post, a training area, or a proving ground in addition to housing one or more units. 3. Military bases typically rely on outside assistance to function. 4. However, some sophisticated bases can survive on their own for extended periods of time because they can supply their residents with food, water, and other essentials even when they are under attack. 5. Military air bases, or simply "air bases," are bases for military aviation. 6. Naval bases are bases for military ships.</s>

Why does Nadal play tennis left-handed?

At age 8, Nadal won an under-12 regional tennis championship at a time when he was also a promising football player. This made Toni Nadal intensify training, and it was at that time that his uncle encouraged Nadal to play left-handed for a natural advantage on the tennis court, after studying Nadal's then two-handed forehand stroke.

When he was younger, Rafa Nadal used to play with a double handed forehand. His uncle then recommended that he switch to a left-handed stroke in order to have a natural advantage on court.

summarization

### Instruction: Why does Nadal play tennis left-handed? ### Context: At age 8, Nadal won an under-12 regional tennis championship at a time when he was also a promising football player. This made Toni Nadal intensify training, and it was at that time that his uncle encouraged Nadal to play left-handed for a natural advantage on the tennis court, after studying Nadal's then two-handed forehand stroke. ### Answer: When he was younger, Rafa Nadal used to play with a double handed forehand. His uncle then recommended that he switch to a left-handed stroke in order to have a natural advantage on court.</s>

Give me a bulleted list of the main responses to "Bad Blood" listed in this text, including whether they were positive or negative.

"Bad Blood" is a song by American singer-songwriter Taylor Swift, taken from her fifth studio album 1989 (2014). Swift wrote the song with its producers Max Martin and Shellback. The album track is a pop song with stomping drums. A hip hop remix of "Bad Blood", featuring American rapper Kendrick Lamar and additional production by Ilya, was released as the fourth single from 1989 on May 17, 2015, by Big Machine and Republic Records. The lyrics are about feelings of betrayal by a close friend. Upon the album's release, critics expressed mixed opinions about "Bad Blood", with some complimenting Swift's defiant attitude and dubbing it an album highlight, while others criticized its production and lyrics. The remixed single was praised for the reworked instrumentation and Lamar's verses, which others considered to be out of place on a pop song. Media outlets speculated that American singer Katy Perry is the subject of the song. The remix received a Grammy nomination for Best Pop Duo/Group Performance. "Bad Blood" was supported by a high-budget music video directed by Joseph Kahn and produced by Swift. It featured an ensemble cast consisting of many singers, actresses and fashion models, which received wide media coverage. Critics praised the video for its cinematic and futuristic visuals inspired by neo-noir styles. It won a Grammy Award for Best Music Video, and two MTV Video Music Awards for the Video of the Year and Best Collaboration. Commercially, "Bad Blood" reached number one in Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and Scotland, as well as the United States, where it topped the Billboard Hot 100, Adult Top 40 and Mainstream Top 40 charts. It has been certified triple platinum in Australia and Canada, and 6× platinum in the US.

* positive about Taylor Swift's defiant attitude * negative about the song's production and lyrics * positive about the instrumentation and verses * positive about the accompanying music video's visuals * positive in terms of topping several charts

summarization

### Instruction: Give me a bulleted list of the main responses to "Bad Blood" listed in this text, including whether they were positive or negative. ### Context: "Bad Blood" is a song by American singer-songwriter Taylor Swift, taken from her fifth studio album 1989 (2014). Swift wrote the song with its producers Max Martin and Shellback. The album track is a pop song with stomping drums. A hip hop remix of "Bad Blood", featuring American rapper Kendrick Lamar and additional production by Ilya, was released as the fourth single from 1989 on May 17, 2015, by Big Machine and Republic Records. The lyrics are about feelings of betrayal by a close friend. Upon the album's release, critics expressed mixed opinions about "Bad Blood", with some complimenting Swift's defiant attitude and dubbing it an album highlight, while others criticized its production and lyrics. The remixed single was praised for the reworked instrumentation and Lamar's verses, which others considered to be out of place on a pop song. Media outlets speculated that American singer Katy Perry is the subject of the song. The remix received a Grammy nomination for Best Pop Duo/Group Performance. "Bad Blood" was supported by a high-budget music video directed by Joseph Kahn and produced by Swift. It featured an ensemble cast consisting of many singers, actresses and fashion models, which received wide media coverage. Critics praised the video for its cinematic and futuristic visuals inspired by neo-noir styles. It won a Grammy Award for Best Music Video, and two MTV Video Music Awards for the Video of the Year and Best Collaboration. Commercially, "Bad Blood" reached number one in Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and Scotland, as well as the United States, where it topped the Billboard Hot 100, Adult Top 40 and Mainstream Top 40 charts. It has been certified triple platinum in Australia and Canada, and 6× platinum in the US. ### Answer: * positive about Taylor Swift's defiant attitude * negative about the song's production and lyrics * positive about the instrumentation and verses * positive about the accompanying music video's visuals * positive in terms of topping several charts</s>

What is a probability distribution?

In probability theory and statistics, a probability distribution is the mathematical function that gives the probabilities of occurrence of different possible outcomes for an experiment. It is a mathematical description of a random phenomenon in terms of its sample space and the probabilities of events (subsets of the sample space). For instance, if X is used to denote the outcome of a coin toss ("the experiment"), then the probability distribution of X would take the value 0.5 (1 in 2 or 1/2) for X = heads, and 0.5 for X = tails (assuming that the coin is fair). Examples of random phenomena include the weather conditions at some future date, the height of a randomly selected person, the fraction of male students in a school, the results of a survey to be conducted, etc.

A probability distribution is a distribution of different outcomes based on the probable number of times each outcome will occur.

summarization

### Instruction: What is a probability distribution? ### Context: In probability theory and statistics, a probability distribution is the mathematical function that gives the probabilities of occurrence of different possible outcomes for an experiment. It is a mathematical description of a random phenomenon in terms of its sample space and the probabilities of events (subsets of the sample space). For instance, if X is used to denote the outcome of a coin toss ("the experiment"), then the probability distribution of X would take the value 0.5 (1 in 2 or 1/2) for X = heads, and 0.5 for X = tails (assuming that the coin is fair). Examples of random phenomena include the weather conditions at some future date, the height of a randomly selected person, the fraction of male students in a school, the results of a survey to be conducted, etc. ### Answer: A probability distribution is a distribution of different outcomes based on the probable number of times each outcome will occur.</s>

Use the text to tell me what competitions Irina Aksyonova won or placed highly in.

Irina Anatolyevna Aksyonova (also Aksenova, Russian: Ирина Анатольевна Аксёнова; born 24 September 1962) is a retired Russian swimmer. She won bronze medals in the 4 × 100 m medley relay at the 1978 World Aquatics Championships and 1980 Summer Olympics, where she swam for the Soviet Union team in the preliminaries. At the 1980 Olympics she also finished fourth in the 800 m, fifth in the 400 m and eighth in the 200 m freestyle events. Between 1977 and 1980 she won seven national titles and set five national records in 200–800 m freestyle events. However, when her medley relay team finished third at the 1978 World Championships, she was swimming the 100 m butterfly leg. Currently she lives in Czech Republic.

Irina Aksyonova placed highly or won medals in many competitions, including the 1978 World Aquatics Championships, where she won a bronze medal, and the 1980 Summer Olympics where she won a bronze medal and also placed highly in the 800 meter, 400 meter, and 200 meter freestyle event. She also won third place in the 1978 World Championships. She also won seven national titles.

summarization

### Instruction: Use the text to tell me what competitions Irina Aksyonova won or placed highly in. ### Context: Irina Anatolyevna Aksyonova (also Aksenova, Russian: Ирина Анатольевна Аксёнова; born 24 September 1962) is a retired Russian swimmer. She won bronze medals in the 4 × 100 m medley relay at the 1978 World Aquatics Championships and 1980 Summer Olympics, where she swam for the Soviet Union team in the preliminaries. At the 1980 Olympics she also finished fourth in the 800 m, fifth in the 400 m and eighth in the 200 m freestyle events. Between 1977 and 1980 she won seven national titles and set five national records in 200–800 m freestyle events. However, when her medley relay team finished third at the 1978 World Championships, she was swimming the 100 m butterfly leg. Currently she lives in Czech Republic. ### Answer: Irina Aksyonova placed highly or won medals in many competitions, including the 1978 World Aquatics Championships, where she won a bronze medal, and the 1980 Summer Olympics where she won a bronze medal and also placed highly in the 800 meter, 400 meter, and 200 meter freestyle event. She also won third place in the 1978 World Championships. She also won seven national titles.</s>

List the club sports teams that Neumann University has

Neumann University is a member of the Atlantic East Conference as well as the United Collegiate Hockey Conference (UCHC). It competes in the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA), Division III. In 2009 Neumann University's men's ice hockey team won the NCAA Division III National Championship. In the summer of 2012, Neumann University constructed the Mirenda Center, a 72,000 square foot athletic complex which houses an indoor track, NCAA Division III regulation basketball court, dance studios, student lounges, a classroom, weight and cardio rooms as well as the Center for Sport Spirituality and Character Development. Neumann sponsors 12 women's athletic teams and 10 men's teams. In addition the 22 varsity teams, Neumann University also has a very active club sports roster which includes baseball, basketball, cheer leading, a dance team, ice hockey, roller hockey as well as men's and women's rugby. Most recently, Neumann University won back to back national championships (2015 and 2016) as part of the National Collegiate Roller Hockey Association (NCHRA).

Based off of the shared information, Neumann University has the following club sports teams: * baseball * basketball * cheer leading * a dance team * ice hockey * roller hockey * men's rugby * women's rugby Note that this may not be a fully exhaustive list.

summarization

### Instruction: List the club sports teams that Neumann University has ### Context: Neumann University is a member of the Atlantic East Conference as well as the United Collegiate Hockey Conference (UCHC). It competes in the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA), Division III. In 2009 Neumann University's men's ice hockey team won the NCAA Division III National Championship. In the summer of 2012, Neumann University constructed the Mirenda Center, a 72,000 square foot athletic complex which houses an indoor track, NCAA Division III regulation basketball court, dance studios, student lounges, a classroom, weight and cardio rooms as well as the Center for Sport Spirituality and Character Development. Neumann sponsors 12 women's athletic teams and 10 men's teams. In addition the 22 varsity teams, Neumann University also has a very active club sports roster which includes baseball, basketball, cheer leading, a dance team, ice hockey, roller hockey as well as men's and women's rugby. Most recently, Neumann University won back to back national championships (2015 and 2016) as part of the National Collegiate Roller Hockey Association (NCHRA). ### Answer: Based off of the shared information, Neumann University has the following club sports teams: * baseball * basketball * cheer leading * a dance team * ice hockey * roller hockey * men's rugby * women's rugby Note that this may not be a fully exhaustive list.</s>

Who is Franz Kafka?

Franz Kafka (3 July 1883 – 3 June 1924) was a German-speaking Bohemian novelist and short-story writer based in Prague, who is widely regarded as one of the major figures of 20th-century literature. His work fuses elements of realism and the fantastic. It typically features isolated protagonists facing bizarre or surrealistic predicaments and incomprehensible socio-bureaucratic powers. It has been interpreted as exploring themes of alienation, existential anxiety, guilt, and absurdity. His best known works include the short story "The Metamorphosis" and novels The Trial and The Castle. The term Kafkaesque has entered English to describe absurd situations, like those depicted in his writing.

Franz Kafka was a German-speaking author who has had a major impact in literature. Common themes in his writing include realism and the fantastic. HIs most famous works are "The Metamorphosis", "The Trial", and "The Castle". The term "Kafkaesque" has been coined based on his writings.

summarization

### Instruction: Who is Franz Kafka? ### Context: Franz Kafka (3 July 1883 – 3 June 1924) was a German-speaking Bohemian novelist and short-story writer based in Prague, who is widely regarded as one of the major figures of 20th-century literature. His work fuses elements of realism and the fantastic. It typically features isolated protagonists facing bizarre or surrealistic predicaments and incomprehensible socio-bureaucratic powers. It has been interpreted as exploring themes of alienation, existential anxiety, guilt, and absurdity. His best known works include the short story "The Metamorphosis" and novels The Trial and The Castle. The term Kafkaesque has entered English to describe absurd situations, like those depicted in his writing. ### Answer: Franz Kafka was a German-speaking author who has had a major impact in literature. Common themes in his writing include realism and the fantastic. HIs most famous works are "The Metamorphosis", "The Trial", and "The Castle". The term "Kafkaesque" has been coined based on his writings.</s>

Did automobiles exist prior to the invention of the ICE (internal combustion engine)?

Development of the automobile started in 1672 with the invention of the first steam-powered vehicle, which led to the creation of the first steam-powered automobile capable of human transportation, built by Nicolas-Joseph Cugnot in 1769. Inventors began to branch out at the start of the 19th century, creating the de Rivas engine, one of the first internal combustion engines, and an early electric motor. Samuel Brown later tested the first industrially applied internal combustion engine in 1826.

The first engines that were capable of enabling human transportation were steam powered engines. While the development of steam powered vehicles capable of enabling human transportation was initiated in 1672, the first actual steam powered automobile was built by Nicolas-Joseph Cugnot in 1769.

summarization

### Instruction: Did automobiles exist prior to the invention of the ICE (internal combustion engine)? ### Context: Development of the automobile started in 1672 with the invention of the first steam-powered vehicle, which led to the creation of the first steam-powered automobile capable of human transportation, built by Nicolas-Joseph Cugnot in 1769. Inventors began to branch out at the start of the 19th century, creating the de Rivas engine, one of the first internal combustion engines, and an early electric motor. Samuel Brown later tested the first industrially applied internal combustion engine in 1826. ### Answer: The first engines that were capable of enabling human transportation were steam powered engines. While the development of steam powered vehicles capable of enabling human transportation was initiated in 1672, the first actual steam powered automobile was built by Nicolas-Joseph Cugnot in 1769.</s>

What is COCOMO

The Constructive Cost Model (COCOMO) is a procedural software cost estimation model developed by Barry W. Boehm. The model parameters are derived from fitting a regression formula using data from historical projects (63 projects for COCOMO 81 and 163 projects for COCOMO II).

COCOMO is a software cost/effort estimation tool built on regression algorithm

summarization

### Instruction: What is COCOMO ### Context: The Constructive Cost Model (COCOMO) is a procedural software cost estimation model developed by Barry W. Boehm. The model parameters are derived from fitting a regression formula using data from historical projects (63 projects for COCOMO 81 and 163 projects for COCOMO II). ### Answer: COCOMO is a software cost/effort estimation tool built on regression algorithm</s>

Using examples from the text, list some popular songs from the album For Bitter or Worse.

For Bitter or Worse is the sixth studio album from the Dutch singer Anouk. The album was released on 18 September 2009, via the record label EMI. The first single from the album, "Three Days in a Row" was released in August. It reached the top of the Netherlands charts in September 2009, making it Anouk's first number one in the country. In June of the same year, one of the songs recorded for the album, "Today", was released as promo material. It was so successful that, despite never being released as an official single, the song reached number 50 in the Dutch chart. The second single Woman, was sent to radio stations at the end of October 2009. After just one day the single was at number one on airplay chart. The single was released physically on 24 November 2009.

Popular songs from the album For Bitter or Worse include "Three Days in a Row" and "Today".

summarization

### Instruction: Using examples from the text, list some popular songs from the album For Bitter or Worse. ### Context: For Bitter or Worse is the sixth studio album from the Dutch singer Anouk. The album was released on 18 September 2009, via the record label EMI. The first single from the album, "Three Days in a Row" was released in August. It reached the top of the Netherlands charts in September 2009, making it Anouk's first number one in the country. In June of the same year, one of the songs recorded for the album, "Today", was released as promo material. It was so successful that, despite never being released as an official single, the song reached number 50 in the Dutch chart. The second single Woman, was sent to radio stations at the end of October 2009. After just one day the single was at number one on airplay chart. The single was released physically on 24 November 2009. ### Answer: Popular songs from the album For Bitter or Worse include "Three Days in a Row" and "Today".</s>

How many seasons did Shaq have over 30 ppg

On the team's first full day at the Olympics in Atlanta, the media announced that O'Neal would join the Los Angeles Lakers on a seven-year, $121 million contract. O'Neal insisted he did not choose Los Angeles for the money; discussing the signing he referred to a couple of his product endorsements, saying: "I'm tired of hearing about money, money, money, money, money. I just want to play the game, drink Pepsi, wear Reebok." The Lakers won 56 games during the 1996–97 season. O'Neal averaged 26.2 points and 12.5 rebounds in his first season with Los Angeles; however, he again missed over 30 games due to injury. The Lakers made the playoffs, but were eliminated in the second round by the Utah Jazz in five games. In his first playoff game for the Lakers, O'Neal scored 46 points against the Portland Trail Blazers, the most for the Lakers in a playoff game since Jerry West had 53 in 1969. On December 17, 1996, O'Neal shoved Dennis Rodman of the Chicago Bulls; Rodman's teammates Scottie Pippen and Michael Jordan restrained Rodman and prevented further conflict. The Los Angeles Daily News reported that O'Neal was willing to be suspended for fighting Rodman, and O'Neal said: "It's one thing to talk tough and one thing to be tough." The following season, O'Neal averaged 28.3 points and 11.4 rebounds. He led the league with a 58.4 field goal percentage, the first of five consecutive seasons in which he did so. The Lakers finished the season 61–21, first in the Pacific Division, and were the second seed in the western conference during the 1998 NBA Playoffs. After defeating the Portland Trail Blazers and Seattle SuperSonics in the first two rounds, the Lakers again fell to the Jazz, this time in a 4–0 sweep.

Shaquille O'Neal had three seasons over 30 points per game, all of which were with the Los Angeles Lakers. He had his first season with the Lakers in 1995-96, when he averaged 30.4 points per game. He had his second season in 1996-97, when he averaged 29.7 points per game. He had his final season with the Lakers in 2000-01, when he averaged 31.2 points per game.

summarization

### Instruction: How many seasons did Shaq have over 30 ppg ### Context: On the team's first full day at the Olympics in Atlanta, the media announced that O'Neal would join the Los Angeles Lakers on a seven-year, $121 million contract. O'Neal insisted he did not choose Los Angeles for the money; discussing the signing he referred to a couple of his product endorsements, saying: "I'm tired of hearing about money, money, money, money, money. I just want to play the game, drink Pepsi, wear Reebok." The Lakers won 56 games during the 1996–97 season. O'Neal averaged 26.2 points and 12.5 rebounds in his first season with Los Angeles; however, he again missed over 30 games due to injury. The Lakers made the playoffs, but were eliminated in the second round by the Utah Jazz in five games. In his first playoff game for the Lakers, O'Neal scored 46 points against the Portland Trail Blazers, the most for the Lakers in a playoff game since Jerry West had 53 in 1969. On December 17, 1996, O'Neal shoved Dennis Rodman of the Chicago Bulls; Rodman's teammates Scottie Pippen and Michael Jordan restrained Rodman and prevented further conflict. The Los Angeles Daily News reported that O'Neal was willing to be suspended for fighting Rodman, and O'Neal said: "It's one thing to talk tough and one thing to be tough." The following season, O'Neal averaged 28.3 points and 11.4 rebounds. He led the league with a 58.4 field goal percentage, the first of five consecutive seasons in which he did so. The Lakers finished the season 61–21, first in the Pacific Division, and were the second seed in the western conference during the 1998 NBA Playoffs. After defeating the Portland Trail Blazers and Seattle SuperSonics in the first two rounds, the Lakers again fell to the Jazz, this time in a 4–0 sweep. ### Answer: Shaquille O'Neal had three seasons over 30 points per game, all of which were with the Los Angeles Lakers. He had his first season with the Lakers in 1995-96, when he averaged 30.4 points per game. He had his second season in 1996-97, when he averaged 29.7 points per game. He had his final season with the Lakers in 2000-01, when he averaged 31.2 points per game.</s>

Who was Ann-Marie Hermans?

Ann-Marie Hermans is an Australian politician. She is a member of the Liberal Party and is a member of the Victorian Legislative Council, representing the South Eastern Metropolitan Region since November 2022. Upon election to the Legislative Council, she was appointed Shadow Minister for Emergency Services and Shadow Minister for WorkCover and the TAC in the Pesutto shadow cabinet. Before joining the Liberals, she ran for Family First at the 2006 Victorian state election. Hermans was a school teacher prior to entering politics.

Ann-Marie Hermans is an Australian politician from the Liberal Party. She has represented the South Eastern Metropolitan Region since November 2022.

summarization

### Instruction: Who was Ann-Marie Hermans? ### Context: Ann-Marie Hermans is an Australian politician. She is a member of the Liberal Party and is a member of the Victorian Legislative Council, representing the South Eastern Metropolitan Region since November 2022. Upon election to the Legislative Council, she was appointed Shadow Minister for Emergency Services and Shadow Minister for WorkCover and the TAC in the Pesutto shadow cabinet. Before joining the Liberals, she ran for Family First at the 2006 Victorian state election. Hermans was a school teacher prior to entering politics. ### Answer: Ann-Marie Hermans is an Australian politician from the Liberal Party. She has represented the South Eastern Metropolitan Region since November 2022.</s>

Give me a list of the dog breeds

This list of dog breeds includes both extant and extinct dog breeds, varieties and types. A research article on dog genomics published in Science/AAAS defines modern dog breeds as "a recent invention defined by conformation to a physical ideal and purity of lineage".

Affenpinscher Afghan Hound Africanis Aidi Airedale Terrier Akbash Akita Aksaray Malaklisi Alano Español Alapaha Blue Blood Bulldog Alaskan Husky Alaskan Klee Kai Alaskan Malamute Alopekis Alpine Dachsbracke American Bulldog American Bully American Cocker Spaniel American English Coonhound American Eskimo Dog American Foxhound American Hairless Terrier American Leopard Hound American Pit Bull Terrier American Staffordshire Terrier American Water Spaniel Anglo-Français de Petite Vénerie Appenzeller Sennenhund Ariège Pointer Ariegeois Armant Armenian Gampr Artois Hound Assyrian Mastiff Australian Cattle Dog Australian Kelpie Australian Shepherd Australian Stumpy Tail Cattle Dog Australian Terrier Austrian Black and Tan Hound Austrian Pinscher Azawakh Bắc Hà dog Bakharwal dog Banjara Hound Bankhar Dog Barak hound Barbado da Terceira Barbet Basenji Basque Shepherd Dog Basset Artésien Normand Basset Bleu de Gascogne Basset Fauve de Bretagne Basset Hound Bavarian Mountain Hound Beagle Beagle-Harrier Bearded Collie Beauceron Bedlington Terrier Belgian Shepherd Bergamasco Shepherd Berger Picard Bernese Mountain Dog Bichon Frisé Billy Black and Tan Coonhound Black Norwegian Elkhound Black Russian Terrier Black Mouth Cur Bloodhound Blue Lacy Blue Picardy Spaniel Bluetick Coonhound Boerboel Bohemian Shepherd Bolognese Border Collie Border Terrier Borzoi Boston Terrier Bouvier des Ardennes Bouvier des Flandres Boxer Boykin Spaniel Bracco Italiano Braque d'Auvergne Braque du Bourbonnais Braque Français Braque Saint-Germain Briard Briquet Griffon Vendéen Brittany Broholmer Bruno Jura Hound Brussels Griffon Bucovina Shepherd Dog Bull Arab Bull Terrier Bulldog Bullmastiff Bully Kutta Burgos Pointer Ca Mè Mallorquí Ca de Bou Cairn Terrier Calupoh Campeiro Bulldog Can de Chira Can de Palleiro Canaan Dog Canadian Eskimo Dog Cane Corso Cane di Oropa Cane Paratore Cantabrian Water Dog Cão da Serra de Aires Cão de Castro Laboreiro Cão de Gado Transmontano Cão Fila de São Miguel Cardigan Welsh Corgi Carea Castellano Manchego Carea Leonés Carolina Dog Carpathian Shepherd Dog Catahoula Leopard Dog Catalan Sheepdog Caucasian Shepherd Dog Cavalier King Charles Spaniel Central Asian Shepherd Dog Cesky Fousek Cesky Terrier Chesapeake Bay Retriever Chien Français Blanc et Noir Chien Français Blanc et Orange Chien Français Tricolore Chihuahua Chilean Terrier Chinese Crested Dog Chinook Chippiparai Chongqing dog Chortai Chow Chow Chukotka sled dog Cimarrón Uruguayo Cirneco dell'Etna Clumber Spaniel Colombian fino hound Continental bulldog Coton de Tuléar Cretan Hound Croatian Sheepdog Curly-Coated Retriever Cursinu Czechoslovakian Wolfdog D–K Dachshund Dalmatian Dandie Dinmont Terrier Danish Spitz Danish-Swedish Farmdog Denmark Feist Dingo [note 1] Dobermann Dogo Argentino Dogo Guatemalteco Dogo Sardesco Dogue Brasileiro Dogue de Bordeaux Donggyeongi Drentse Patrijshond Drever Dunker Dutch Shepherd Dutch Smoushond East Siberian Laika East European Shepherd Ecuadorian Hairless Dog English Cocker Spaniel English Foxhound English Mastiff English Setter English Shepherd English Springer Spaniel English Toy Terrier (Black & Tan) Entlebucher Mountain Dog Estonian Hound Estrela Mountain Dog Eurasier Field Spaniel Fila Brasileiro Finnish Hound Finnish Lapphund Finnish Spitz Flat-Coated Retriever French Bulldog French Spaniel Galgo Español Garafian Shepherd Gascon Saintongeois Georgian Shepherd German Hound German Longhaired Pointer German Pinscher German Roughhaired Pointer German Shepherd German Shorthaired Pointer German Spaniel German Spitz German Wirehaired Pointer Giant Schnauzer Glen of Imaal Terrier Golden Retriever Gończy Polski Gordon Setter Grand Anglo-Français Blanc et Noir Grand Anglo-Français Blanc et Orange Grand Anglo-Français Tricolore Grand Basset Griffon Vendéen Grand Bleu de Gascogne Grand Griffon Vendéen Great Dane Greater Swiss Mountain Dog Greek Harehound Greek Shepherd Greenland Dog Greyhound Griffon Bleu de Gascogne Griffon Fauve de Bretagne Griffon Nivernais Gull Dong Gull Terrier Hällefors Elkhound Halden Hound Hamiltonstövare Hanover Hound Harrier Havanese Himalayan Sheepdog Hierran Wolfdog Hmong bobtail dog Hokkaido Hovawart Huntaway Hygen Hound Ibizan Hound Icelandic Sheepdog Indian pariah dog Indian Spitz Irish Red and White Setter Irish Setter Irish Terrier Irish Water Spaniel Irish Wolfhound Istrian Coarse-haired Hound Istrian Shorthaired Hound Italian Greyhound Jack Russell Terrier Jagdterrier Jämthund Japanese Chin Japanese Spitz Japanese Terrier Jindo Jonangi Kai Ken Kaikadi Kangal Shepherd Dog Kanni Karakachan dog Karelian Bear Dog Kars Karst Shepherd Keeshond Kerry Beagle Kerry Blue Terrier Khala King Charles Spaniel King Shepherd Kintamani Kishu Kokoni Kombai Komondor Kooikerhondje Koolie Koyun dog Kromfohrländer Kuchi Kunming dog Kurdish Mastiff Kuvasz L–R Labrador Retriever Lagotto Romagnolo Lakeland Terrier Lancashire Heeler Landseer Lapponian Herder Large Münsterländer Leonberger Levriero Sardo Lhasa Apso Liangshan Dog Lithuanian Hound Lobito Herreño Löwchen Lupo Italiano Mackenzie River husky Magyar agár Mahratta Greyhound Maltese Manchester Terrier Maneto Maremmano-Abruzzese Sheepdog McNab dog Miniature American Shepherd Miniature Bull Terrier Miniature Fox Terrier Miniature Pinscher Miniature Schnauzer Molossus of Epirus Mongrel Montenegrin Mountain Hound Mountain Cur Mountain Feist Mucuchies Mudhol Hound Mudi Neapolitan Mastiff Nenets Herding Laika New Guinea singing dog New Zealand Heading Dog Newfoundland Norfolk Terrier Norrbottenspets Northern Inuit Dog Norwegian Buhund Norwegian Elkhound Norwegian Lundehund Norwich Terrier Nova Scotia Duck Tolling Retriever Old Danish Pointer Old English Sheepdog Old English Terrier Olde English Bulldogge Otterhound Pachon Navarro Pampas Deerhound Papillon Parson Russell Terrier Pastore della Lessinia e del Lagorai Patagonian Sheepdog Patterdale Terrier Pekingese Pembroke Welsh Corgi Perro Majorero Perro de Pastor Mallorquin Perro de Presa Canario Perro de Presa Mallorquin Peruvian Inca Orchid Petit Basset Griffon Vendéen Petit Bleu de Gascogne Phalène Pharaoh Hound Phu Quoc Ridgeback Picardy Spaniel Plummer Terrier Plott Hound Podenco Andaluz Podenco Canario Podenco Valenciano Pointer Poitevin Polish Greyhound Polish Hound Polish Lowland Sheepdog Polish Tatra Sheepdog Pomeranian Pont-Audemer Spaniel Poodle Porcelaine Portuguese Podengo Portuguese Pointer Portuguese Water Dog Posavac Hound Pražský Krysařík Pudelpointer Pug Puli Pumi Pungsan dog Pyrenean Mastiff Pyrenean Mountain Dog Pyrenean Sheepdog Rafeiro do Alentejo Rajapalayam Rampur Greyhound Rat Terrier Ratonero Bodeguero Andaluz Ratonero Mallorquin Ratonero Murciano Ratonero Valenciano Redbone Coonhound Rhodesian Ridgeback Romanian Mioritic Shepherd Dog Romanian Raven Shepherd Dog Rottweiler Rough Collie Russian Spaniel Russian Toy Russo-European Laika Ryukyu Inu S–Z Saarloos Wolfdog Sabueso Español Saint Bernard Saint Hubert Jura Hound Saint Miguel Cattle Dog Saint-Usuge Spaniel Saluki Samoyed Sapsali Sarabi dog Sardinian Shepherd Dog Šarplaninac Schapendoes Schillerstövare Schipperke Schweizer Laufhund Schweizerischer Niederlaufhund Scottish Deerhound Scottish Terrier Sealyham Terrier Segugio dell'Appennino Segugio Italiano Segugio Maremmano Serbian Hound Serbian Tricolour Hound Serrano Bulldog Shar Pei Shetland Sheepdog Shiba Inu Shih Tzu Shikoku Shiloh Shepherd Siberian Husky Silken Windhound Silky Terrier Sinhala Hound Skye Terrier Sloughi Slovakian Wirehaired Pointer Slovenský Cuvac Slovenský Kopov Smalandstövare Small Greek domestic dog Small Münsterländer Smithfield Smooth Collie Smooth Fox Terrier Soft-Coated Wheaten Terrier South Russian Ovcharka Spanish Mastiff Spanish Water Dog Spino degli Iblei Spinone Italiano Sporting Lucas Terrier Stabyhoun Staffordshire Bull Terrier Standard Schnauzer Stephens Stock Styrian Coarse-haired Hound Sussex Spaniel Swedish Lapphund Swedish Vallhund Swinford Bandog Taigan Taiwan Dog Tamaskan Dog Tang Dog Tazy Teddy Roosevelt Terrier Telomian Tenterfield Terrier Terrier Brasileiro Thai Bangkaew Dog Thai Ridgeback Tibetan Kyi Apso Tibetan Mastiff Tibetan Spaniel Tibetan Terrier Tonya Finosu Torkuz Tornjak Tosa Inu Toy Fox Terrier Toy Manchester Terrier Transylvanian Hound Treeing Cur Treeing Feist Treeing Tennessee Brindle Treeing Walker Coonhound Trigg Hound Tyrolean Hound Vikhan Villano de Las Encartaciones Villanuco de Las Encartaciones Vizsla Volpino Italiano Weimaraner Welsh Hound Welsh Sheepdog Welsh Springer Spaniel Welsh Terrier West Country Harrier West Highland White Terrier West Siberian Laika Westphalian Dachsbracke Wetterhoun Whippet White Shepherd White Swiss Shepherd Dog Wire Fox Terrier Wirehaired Pointing Griffon Wirehaired Vizsla Xiasi Dog Xoloitzcuintle Yakutian Laika Yorkshire Terrier Zerdava

summarization

### Instruction: Give me a list of the dog breeds ### Context: This list of dog breeds includes both extant and extinct dog breeds, varieties and types. A research article on dog genomics published in Science/AAAS defines modern dog breeds as "a recent invention defined by conformation to a physical ideal and purity of lineage". ### Answer: Affenpinscher Afghan Hound Africanis Aidi Airedale Terrier Akbash Akita Aksaray Malaklisi Alano Español Alapaha Blue Blood Bulldog Alaskan Husky Alaskan Klee Kai Alaskan Malamute Alopekis Alpine Dachsbracke American Bulldog American Bully American Cocker Spaniel American English Coonhound American Eskimo Dog American Foxhound American Hairless Terrier American Leopard Hound American Pit Bull Terrier American Staffordshire Terrier American Water Spaniel Anglo-Français de Petite Vénerie Appenzeller Sennenhund Ariège Pointer Ariegeois Armant Armenian Gampr Artois Hound Assyrian Mastiff Australian Cattle Dog Australian Kelpie Australian Shepherd Australian Stumpy Tail Cattle Dog Australian Terrier Austrian Black and Tan Hound Austrian Pinscher Azawakh Bắc Hà dog Bakharwal dog Banjara Hound Bankhar Dog Barak hound Barbado da Terceira Barbet Basenji Basque Shepherd Dog Basset Artésien Normand Basset Bleu de Gascogne Basset Fauve de Bretagne Basset Hound Bavarian Mountain Hound Beagle Beagle-Harrier Bearded Collie Beauceron Bedlington Terrier Belgian Shepherd Bergamasco Shepherd Berger Picard Bernese Mountain Dog Bichon Frisé Billy Black and Tan Coonhound Black Norwegian Elkhound Black Russian Terrier Black Mouth Cur Bloodhound Blue Lacy Blue Picardy Spaniel Bluetick Coonhound Boerboel Bohemian Shepherd Bolognese Border Collie Border Terrier Borzoi Boston Terrier Bouvier des Ardennes Bouvier des Flandres Boxer Boykin Spaniel Bracco Italiano Braque d'Auvergne Braque du Bourbonnais Braque Français Braque Saint-Germain Briard Briquet Griffon Vendéen Brittany Broholmer Bruno Jura Hound Brussels Griffon Bucovina Shepherd Dog Bull Arab Bull Terrier Bulldog Bullmastiff Bully Kutta Burgos Pointer Ca Mè Mallorquí Ca de Bou Cairn Terrier Calupoh Campeiro Bulldog Can de Chira Can de Palleiro Canaan Dog Canadian Eskimo Dog Cane Corso Cane di Oropa Cane Paratore Cantabrian Water Dog Cão da Serra de Aires Cão de Castro Laboreiro Cão de Gado Transmontano Cão Fila de São Miguel Cardigan Welsh Corgi Carea Castellano Manchego Carea Leonés Carolina Dog Carpathian Shepherd Dog Catahoula Leopard Dog Catalan Sheepdog Caucasian Shepherd Dog Cavalier King Charles Spaniel Central Asian Shepherd Dog Cesky Fousek Cesky Terrier Chesapeake Bay Retriever Chien Français Blanc et Noir Chien Français Blanc et Orange Chien Français Tricolore Chihuahua Chilean Terrier Chinese Crested Dog Chinook Chippiparai Chongqing dog Chortai Chow Chow Chukotka sled dog Cimarrón Uruguayo Cirneco dell'Etna Clumber Spaniel Colombian fino hound Continental bulldog Coton de Tuléar Cretan Hound Croatian Sheepdog Curly-Coated Retriever Cursinu Czechoslovakian Wolfdog D–K Dachshund Dalmatian Dandie Dinmont Terrier Danish Spitz Danish-Swedish Farmdog Denmark Feist Dingo [note 1] Dobermann Dogo Argentino Dogo Guatemalteco Dogo Sardesco Dogue Brasileiro Dogue de Bordeaux Donggyeongi Drentse Patrijshond Drever Dunker Dutch Shepherd Dutch Smoushond East Siberian Laika East European Shepherd Ecuadorian Hairless Dog English Cocker Spaniel English Foxhound English Mastiff English Setter English Shepherd English Springer Spaniel English Toy Terrier (Black & Tan) Entlebucher Mountain Dog Estonian Hound Estrela Mountain Dog Eurasier Field Spaniel Fila Brasileiro Finnish Hound Finnish Lapphund Finnish Spitz Flat-Coated Retriever French Bulldog French Spaniel Galgo Español Garafian Shepherd Gascon Saintongeois Georgian Shepherd German Hound German Longhaired Pointer German Pinscher German Roughhaired Pointer German Shepherd German Shorthaired Pointer German Spaniel German Spitz German Wirehaired Pointer Giant Schnauzer Glen of Imaal Terrier Golden Retriever Gończy Polski Gordon Setter Grand Anglo-Français Blanc et Noir Grand Anglo-Français Blanc et Orange Grand Anglo-Français Tricolore Grand Basset Griffon Vendéen Grand Bleu de Gascogne Grand Griffon Vendéen Great Dane Greater Swiss Mountain Dog Greek Harehound Greek Shepherd Greenland Dog Greyhound Griffon Bleu de Gascogne Griffon Fauve de Bretagne Griffon Nivernais Gull Dong Gull Terrier Hällefors Elkhound Halden Hound Hamiltonstövare Hanover Hound Harrier Havanese Himalayan Sheepdog Hierran Wolfdog Hmong bobtail dog Hokkaido Hovawart Huntaway Hygen Hound Ibizan Hound Icelandic Sheepdog Indian pariah dog Indian Spitz Irish Red and White Setter Irish Setter Irish Terrier Irish Water Spaniel Irish Wolfhound Istrian Coarse-haired Hound Istrian Shorthaired Hound Italian Greyhound Jack Russell Terrier Jagdterrier Jämthund Japanese Chin Japanese Spitz Japanese Terrier Jindo Jonangi Kai Ken Kaikadi Kangal Shepherd Dog Kanni Karakachan dog Karelian Bear Dog Kars Karst Shepherd Keeshond Kerry Beagle Kerry Blue Terrier Khala King Charles Spaniel King Shepherd Kintamani Kishu Kokoni Kombai Komondor Kooikerhondje Koolie Koyun dog Kromfohrländer Kuchi Kunming dog Kurdish Mastiff Kuvasz L–R Labrador Retriever Lagotto Romagnolo Lakeland Terrier Lancashire Heeler Landseer Lapponian Herder Large Münsterländer Leonberger Levriero Sardo Lhasa Apso Liangshan Dog Lithuanian Hound Lobito Herreño Löwchen Lupo Italiano Mackenzie River husky Magyar agár Mahratta Greyhound Maltese Manchester Terrier Maneto Maremmano-Abruzzese Sheepdog McNab dog Miniature American Shepherd Miniature Bull Terrier Miniature Fox Terrier Miniature Pinscher Miniature Schnauzer Molossus of Epirus Mongrel Montenegrin Mountain Hound Mountain Cur Mountain Feist Mucuchies Mudhol Hound Mudi Neapolitan Mastiff Nenets Herding Laika New Guinea singing dog New Zealand Heading Dog Newfoundland Norfolk Terrier Norrbottenspets Northern Inuit Dog Norwegian Buhund Norwegian Elkhound Norwegian Lundehund Norwich Terrier Nova Scotia Duck Tolling Retriever Old Danish Pointer Old English Sheepdog Old English Terrier Olde English Bulldogge Otterhound Pachon Navarro Pampas Deerhound Papillon Parson Russell Terrier Pastore della Lessinia e del Lagorai Patagonian Sheepdog Patterdale Terrier Pekingese Pembroke Welsh Corgi Perro Majorero Perro de Pastor Mallorquin Perro de Presa Canario Perro de Presa Mallorquin Peruvian Inca Orchid Petit Basset Griffon Vendéen Petit Bleu de Gascogne Phalène Pharaoh Hound Phu Quoc Ridgeback Picardy Spaniel Plummer Terrier Plott Hound Podenco Andaluz Podenco Canario Podenco Valenciano Pointer Poitevin Polish Greyhound Polish Hound Polish Lowland Sheepdog Polish Tatra Sheepdog Pomeranian Pont-Audemer Spaniel Poodle Porcelaine Portuguese Podengo Portuguese Pointer Portuguese Water Dog Posavac Hound Pražský Krysařík Pudelpointer Pug Puli Pumi Pungsan dog Pyrenean Mastiff Pyrenean Mountain Dog Pyrenean Sheepdog Rafeiro do Alentejo Rajapalayam Rampur Greyhound Rat Terrier Ratonero Bodeguero Andaluz Ratonero Mallorquin Ratonero Murciano Ratonero Valenciano Redbone Coonhound Rhodesian Ridgeback Romanian Mioritic Shepherd Dog Romanian Raven Shepherd Dog Rottweiler Rough Collie Russian Spaniel Russian Toy Russo-European Laika Ryukyu Inu S–Z Saarloos Wolfdog Sabueso Español Saint Bernard Saint Hubert Jura Hound Saint Miguel Cattle Dog Saint-Usuge Spaniel Saluki Samoyed Sapsali Sarabi dog Sardinian Shepherd Dog Šarplaninac Schapendoes Schillerstövare Schipperke Schweizer Laufhund Schweizerischer Niederlaufhund Scottish Deerhound Scottish Terrier Sealyham Terrier Segugio dell'Appennino Segugio Italiano Segugio Maremmano Serbian Hound Serbian Tricolour Hound Serrano Bulldog Shar Pei Shetland Sheepdog Shiba Inu Shih Tzu Shikoku Shiloh Shepherd Siberian Husky Silken Windhound Silky Terrier Sinhala Hound Skye Terrier Sloughi Slovakian Wirehaired Pointer Slovenský Cuvac Slovenský Kopov Smalandstövare Small Greek domestic dog Small Münsterländer Smithfield Smooth Collie Smooth Fox Terrier Soft-Coated Wheaten Terrier South Russian Ovcharka Spanish Mastiff Spanish Water Dog Spino degli Iblei Spinone Italiano Sporting Lucas Terrier Stabyhoun Staffordshire Bull Terrier Standard Schnauzer Stephens Stock Styrian Coarse-haired Hound Sussex Spaniel Swedish Lapphund Swedish Vallhund Swinford Bandog Taigan Taiwan Dog Tamaskan Dog Tang Dog Tazy Teddy Roosevelt Terrier Telomian Tenterfield Terrier Terrier Brasileiro Thai Bangkaew Dog Thai Ridgeback Tibetan Kyi Apso Tibetan Mastiff Tibetan Spaniel Tibetan Terrier Tonya Finosu Torkuz Tornjak Tosa Inu Toy Fox Terrier Toy Manchester Terrier Transylvanian Hound Treeing Cur Treeing Feist Treeing Tennessee Brindle Treeing Walker Coonhound Trigg Hound Tyrolean Hound Vikhan Villano de Las Encartaciones Villanuco de Las Encartaciones Vizsla Volpino Italiano Weimaraner Welsh Hound Welsh Sheepdog Welsh Springer Spaniel Welsh Terrier West Country Harrier West Highland White Terrier West Siberian Laika Westphalian Dachsbracke Wetterhoun Whippet White Shepherd White Swiss Shepherd Dog Wire Fox Terrier Wirehaired Pointing Griffon Wirehaired Vizsla Xiasi Dog Xoloitzcuintle Yakutian Laika Yorkshire Terrier Zerdava</s>

Give me a summary of why an abstract is useful in academic literature?

Academic literature uses the abstract to succinctly communicate complex research. An abstract may act as a stand-alone entity instead of a full paper. As such, an abstract is used by many organizations as the basis for selecting research that is proposed for presentation in the form of a poster, platform/oral presentation or workshop presentation at an academic conference. Most bibliographic databases only index abstracts rather than providing the entire text of the paper. Full texts of scientific papers must often be purchased because of copyright and/or publisher fees and therefore the abstract is a significant selling point for the reprint or electronic form of the full text. The abstract can convey the main results and conclusions of a scientific article but the full text article must be consulted for details of the methodology, the full experimental results, and a critical discussion of the interpretations and conclusions. An abstract allows one to sift through copious numbers of papers for ones in which the researcher can have more confidence that they will be relevant to their research. Once papers are chosen based on the abstract, they must be read carefully to be evaluated for relevance. It is generally agreed that one must not base reference citations on the abstract alone, but the content of an entire paper.

An abstract is useful in academic research because it conveys the complex research in a concise way by acting as a stand-alone summary. Therefore, it is usually used by many organizations as a base for selecting research. Moreover, abstracts are usually provided free of charge by many bibliographic databases which makes the research works more accessible. In addition, researchers can understand if the work is relevant to their research just by reading the abstract.

summarization

### Instruction: Give me a summary of why an abstract is useful in academic literature? ### Context: Academic literature uses the abstract to succinctly communicate complex research. An abstract may act as a stand-alone entity instead of a full paper. As such, an abstract is used by many organizations as the basis for selecting research that is proposed for presentation in the form of a poster, platform/oral presentation or workshop presentation at an academic conference. Most bibliographic databases only index abstracts rather than providing the entire text of the paper. Full texts of scientific papers must often be purchased because of copyright and/or publisher fees and therefore the abstract is a significant selling point for the reprint or electronic form of the full text. The abstract can convey the main results and conclusions of a scientific article but the full text article must be consulted for details of the methodology, the full experimental results, and a critical discussion of the interpretations and conclusions. An abstract allows one to sift through copious numbers of papers for ones in which the researcher can have more confidence that they will be relevant to their research. Once papers are chosen based on the abstract, they must be read carefully to be evaluated for relevance. It is generally agreed that one must not base reference citations on the abstract alone, but the content of an entire paper. ### Answer: An abstract is useful in academic research because it conveys the complex research in a concise way by acting as a stand-alone summary. Therefore, it is usually used by many organizations as a base for selecting research. Moreover, abstracts are usually provided free of charge by many bibliographic databases which makes the research works more accessible. In addition, researchers can understand if the work is relevant to their research just by reading the abstract.</s>

Give me a summary of 1812 war

The War of 1812 (18 June 1812 – 17 February 1815) was fought by the United States of America and its indigenous allies against the United Kingdom and its allies in British North America, with limited participation by Spain in Florida. Tensions originated in long-standing differences over territorial expansion in North America and British support for Native American tribes who opposed U.S. colonial settlement in the Northwest Territory.

The War of 1812 (18 June 1812 – 17 February 1815) was fought by the United States of America and its indigenous allies against the United Kingdom and its allies in British North America, with limited participation by Spain in Florida. It began when the United States declared war on 18 June 1812. Although peace terms were agreed upon in the December 1814 Treaty of Ghent, the war did not officially end until the peace treaty was ratified by Congress on 17 February 1815. Tensions originated in long-standing differences over territorial expansion in North America and British support for Native American tribes who opposed U.S. colonial settlement in the Northwest Territory. These escalated in 1807 after the Royal Navy began enforcing tighter restrictions on American trade with France and press-ganged men they claimed as British subjects, even those with American citizenship certificates. Opinion in the U.S. was split on how to respond, and although majorities in both the House and Senate voted for war, they divided along strict party lines, with the Democratic-Republican Party in favour and the Federalist Party against. News of British concessions made in an attempt to avoid war did not reach the U.S. until late July, by which time the conflict was already underway. At sea, the far larger Royal Navy imposed an effective blockade on U.S. maritime trade, while between 1812 to 1814 British regulars and colonial militia defeated a series of American attacks on Upper Canada. This was balanced by the US winning control of the Northwest Territory with victories at Lake Erie and the Thames in 1813. The abdication of Napoleon in early 1814 allowed the British to send additional troops to North America and the Royal Navy to reinforce their blockade, crippling the American economy. In August 1814, negotiations began in Ghent, with both sides wanting peace; the British economy had been severely impacted by the trade embargo, while the Federalists convened the Hartford Convention in December to formalise their opposition to the war. In August 1814, British troops burned Washington, before American victories at Baltimore and Plattsburgh in September ended fighting in the north. Fighting continued in the Southeastern United States, where in late 1813 a civil war had broken out between a Creek faction supported by Spanish and British traders and those backed by the U.S. Supported by U.S. militia under General Andrew Jackson, the U.S.-backed Creeks won a series of victories, culminating in the capture of Pensacola in November 1814. In early 1815, Jackson defeated a British attack on New Orleans, catapulting him to national celebrity and later victory in the 1828 United States presidential election. News of this success arrived in Washington at the same time as that of the signing of the Treaty of Ghent, which essentially restored the position to that prevailing before the war. While Britain insisted this included lands belonging to their Native American allies prior to 1811, as Congress did not recognize them as independent nations, the Americans did not comply with these provisions and the British made no effort to compel them to do so. The Native Americans were subsequently pushed west of the Mississippi River.

summarization

### Instruction: Give me a summary of 1812 war ### Context: The War of 1812 (18 June 1812 – 17 February 1815) was fought by the United States of America and its indigenous allies against the United Kingdom and its allies in British North America, with limited participation by Spain in Florida. Tensions originated in long-standing differences over territorial expansion in North America and British support for Native American tribes who opposed U.S. colonial settlement in the Northwest Territory. ### Answer: The War of 1812 (18 June 1812 – 17 February 1815) was fought by the United States of America and its indigenous allies against the United Kingdom and its allies in British North America, with limited participation by Spain in Florida. It began when the United States declared war on 18 June 1812. Although peace terms were agreed upon in the December 1814 Treaty of Ghent, the war did not officially end until the peace treaty was ratified by Congress on 17 February 1815. Tensions originated in long-standing differences over territorial expansion in North America and British support for Native American tribes who opposed U.S. colonial settlement in the Northwest Territory. These escalated in 1807 after the Royal Navy began enforcing tighter restrictions on American trade with France and press-ganged men they claimed as British subjects, even those with American citizenship certificates. Opinion in the U.S. was split on how to respond, and although majorities in both the House and Senate voted for war, they divided along strict party lines, with the Democratic-Republican Party in favour and the Federalist Party against. News of British concessions made in an attempt to avoid war did not reach the U.S. until late July, by which time the conflict was already underway. At sea, the far larger Royal Navy imposed an effective blockade on U.S. maritime trade, while between 1812 to 1814 British regulars and colonial militia defeated a series of American attacks on Upper Canada. This was balanced by the US winning control of the Northwest Territory with victories at Lake Erie and the Thames in 1813. The abdication of Napoleon in early 1814 allowed the British to send additional troops to North America and the Royal Navy to reinforce their blockade, crippling the American economy. In August 1814, negotiations began in Ghent, with both sides wanting peace; the British economy had been severely impacted by the trade embargo, while the Federalists convened the Hartford Convention in December to formalise their opposition to the war. In August 1814, British troops burned Washington, before American victories at Baltimore and Plattsburgh in September ended fighting in the north. Fighting continued in the Southeastern United States, where in late 1813 a civil war had broken out between a Creek faction supported by Spanish and British traders and those backed by the U.S. Supported by U.S. militia under General Andrew Jackson, the U.S.-backed Creeks won a series of victories, culminating in the capture of Pensacola in November 1814. In early 1815, Jackson defeated a British attack on New Orleans, catapulting him to national celebrity and later victory in the 1828 United States presidential election. News of this success arrived in Washington at the same time as that of the signing of the Treaty of Ghent, which essentially restored the position to that prevailing before the war. While Britain insisted this included lands belonging to their Native American allies prior to 1811, as Congress did not recognize them as independent nations, the Americans did not comply with these provisions and the British made no effort to compel them to do so. The Native Americans were subsequently pushed west of the Mississippi River.</s>

What country has the highest GDP?

The United States is a highly developed country, and its economy accounts for approximately a quarter of global GDP and is the world's largest by GDP at market exchange rates. By value, the United States is the world's largest importer and second-largest exporter. Although it accounts for just over 4.2% of the world's total population, the U.S. holds over 30% of the total wealth in the world, the largest share held by any country.

The United States has the world's largest GDP at market rate exchange rates. The United States also accounts for approximately 25% of the global GDP. It is the largest importer and second-largest exporter. Having only 4.2% of the world's population, the United States holds over 30% of the total wealth in the world, which is the largest share held by one country.

summarization

### Instruction: What country has the highest GDP? ### Context: The United States is a highly developed country, and its economy accounts for approximately a quarter of global GDP and is the world's largest by GDP at market exchange rates. By value, the United States is the world's largest importer and second-largest exporter. Although it accounts for just over 4.2% of the world's total population, the U.S. holds over 30% of the total wealth in the world, the largest share held by any country. ### Answer: The United States has the world's largest GDP at market rate exchange rates. The United States also accounts for approximately 25% of the global GDP. It is the largest importer and second-largest exporter. Having only 4.2% of the world's population, the United States holds over 30% of the total wealth in the world, which is the largest share held by one country.</s>

What is Women's freestyle 48 kg competition featured in 2017 World Wrestling Championships?

The women's freestyle 48 kilograms is a competition featured at the 2017 World Wrestling Championships, and was held in Paris, France on 24 August 2017.

The women's freestyle 48 kilograms is a competition featured at the 2017 World Wrestling Championships, and was held in Paris, France on 24 August 2017. This freestyle wrestling competition consisted of a single-elimination tournament, with a repechage used to determine the winners of two bronze medals.

summarization

### Instruction: What is Women's freestyle 48 kg competition featured in 2017 World Wrestling Championships? ### Context: The women's freestyle 48 kilograms is a competition featured at the 2017 World Wrestling Championships, and was held in Paris, France on 24 August 2017. ### Answer: The women's freestyle 48 kilograms is a competition featured at the 2017 World Wrestling Championships, and was held in Paris, France on 24 August 2017. This freestyle wrestling competition consisted of a single-elimination tournament, with a repechage used to determine the winners of two bronze medals.</s>

List down some key points about the song "El Rey" from the given text

"El Rey" ("The King") is a 1971 song by Mexican singer José Alfredo Jiménez. It is one of his best known songs and a Latin Grammy Hall of Fame recipient. The song is about "a macho guy convinced his rough-and-tumble life doesn't preclude him from remaining the king among his peers". A chart published by Record World credited "El Rey" as reaching number one in Mexico in 1974, a year after Jiménez's death.

1. José Alfredo Jiménez, a singer from Mexico, released the song "El Rey" ("The King") in 1971. 2. It is one of his most well-known songs and was inducted into the Latin Grammy Hall of Fame. 3. The song is about "a macho guy convinced that his tough life doesn't stop him from remaining the king among his peers." 4. In 1974, a year after Jiménez's passing, "El Rey" was credited with topping a Record World list in Mexico.

summarization

### Instruction: List down some key points about the song "El Rey" from the given text ### Context: "El Rey" ("The King") is a 1971 song by Mexican singer José Alfredo Jiménez. It is one of his best known songs and a Latin Grammy Hall of Fame recipient. The song is about "a macho guy convinced his rough-and-tumble life doesn't preclude him from remaining the king among his peers". A chart published by Record World credited "El Rey" as reaching number one in Mexico in 1974, a year after Jiménez's death. ### Answer: 1. José Alfredo Jiménez, a singer from Mexico, released the song "El Rey" ("The King") in 1971. 2. It is one of his most well-known songs and was inducted into the Latin Grammy Hall of Fame. 3. The song is about "a macho guy convinced that his tough life doesn't stop him from remaining the king among his peers." 4. In 1974, a year after Jiménez's passing, "El Rey" was credited with topping a Record World list in Mexico.</s>

Based on the given text, please tell me which region and country a Troll Cross originated in, and what its intent is.

In Sweden, as well as Norway, a trollkors or troll cross is a bent piece of iron worn as an amulet to ward off malevolent magic, allegedly stemming from medieval Sweden. According to those claiming its authenticity it represented the Norse symbol of protection; thus if a Norseman wore this symbol, they believed that chances of falling into danger would decrease. However, although commonly thought of as a part of Swedish folklore, it was first created—as an item of jewelry—by the smith Kari Erlands from western Dalarna, sometime in the late 1990s. It was claimed to have been a copy of a protective rune found at her grandparents' farm, but this has not been verified. While it does bear some resemblance to the othala rune in Elder Futhark and Anglo-Saxon runic writing systems, it is more likely that Erlands mistook a Bumerke for a protective symbol.

The Troll Cross originated in the western Dalarna region of Sweden. It is worn as an amulet or piece of jewelry to ward off malevolent magic.

summarization

### Instruction: Based on the given text, please tell me which region and country a Troll Cross originated in, and what its intent is. ### Context: In Sweden, as well as Norway, a trollkors or troll cross is a bent piece of iron worn as an amulet to ward off malevolent magic, allegedly stemming from medieval Sweden. According to those claiming its authenticity it represented the Norse symbol of protection; thus if a Norseman wore this symbol, they believed that chances of falling into danger would decrease. However, although commonly thought of as a part of Swedish folklore, it was first created—as an item of jewelry—by the smith Kari Erlands from western Dalarna, sometime in the late 1990s. It was claimed to have been a copy of a protective rune found at her grandparents' farm, but this has not been verified. While it does bear some resemblance to the othala rune in Elder Futhark and Anglo-Saxon runic writing systems, it is more likely that Erlands mistook a Bumerke for a protective symbol. ### Answer: The Troll Cross originated in the western Dalarna region of Sweden. It is worn as an amulet or piece of jewelry to ward off malevolent magic.</s>

Has Thailand been part in the ABU TV Song Festival

The participation of Thailand in the ABU TV Song Festival has occurred twice since the inaugural ABU TV Song Festival began in 2012. Since their début in 2013, the Thai entry has been organised by the national broadcaster Thai Public Broadcasting Service (TPBS). In 2015, Thailand withdrew from the festival.

Indeed, Thailand has been participating in the ABU TV Song Festival. It has occurred twice since the inaugural ABU TV Song Festival began in 2012. Since their début in 2013, the Thai entry has been organised by the national broadcaster Thai Public Broadcasting Service (TPBS). In 2015, Thailand withdrew from the festival.

summarization

### Instruction: Has Thailand been part in the ABU TV Song Festival ### Context: The participation of Thailand in the ABU TV Song Festival has occurred twice since the inaugural ABU TV Song Festival began in 2012. Since their début in 2013, the Thai entry has been organised by the national broadcaster Thai Public Broadcasting Service (TPBS). In 2015, Thailand withdrew from the festival. ### Answer: Indeed, Thailand has been participating in the ABU TV Song Festival. It has occurred twice since the inaugural ABU TV Song Festival began in 2012. Since their début in 2013, the Thai entry has been organised by the national broadcaster Thai Public Broadcasting Service (TPBS). In 2015, Thailand withdrew from the festival.</s>

Please give me 3 reasons why Ronaldo is the best player in the world from this text

Cristiano Ronaldo dos Santos Aveiro GOIH ComM (Portuguese pronunciation: [kɾiʃˈtjɐnu ʁɔˈnaldu]; born 5 February 1985) is a Portuguese professional footballer who plays as a forward for and captains both Saudi Professional League club Al Nassr and the Portugal national team. Widely regarded as one of the greatest players of all time, Ronaldo has won five Ballon d'Or awards[note 3] and four European Golden Shoes, the most by a European player. He has won 32 trophies in his career, including seven league titles, five UEFA Champions Leagues, the UEFA European Championship and the UEFA Nations League. Ronaldo holds the records for most appearances (183), goals (140), and assists (42) in the Champions League, goals in the European Championship (14), men's international goals (122), and men's international appearances (198). He is one of the few players to have made over 1,100 professional career appearances, and has scored over 800 official senior career goals for club and country.

Ronaldo has won more Ballon d'Or awards than any other European plan. He has made more than 1100 professional appearances and score more than 800 official senior goals.

summarization

### Instruction: Please give me 3 reasons why Ronaldo is the best player in the world from this text ### Context: Cristiano Ronaldo dos Santos Aveiro GOIH ComM (Portuguese pronunciation: [kɾiʃˈtjɐnu ʁɔˈnaldu]; born 5 February 1985) is a Portuguese professional footballer who plays as a forward for and captains both Saudi Professional League club Al Nassr and the Portugal national team. Widely regarded as one of the greatest players of all time, Ronaldo has won five Ballon d'Or awards[note 3] and four European Golden Shoes, the most by a European player. He has won 32 trophies in his career, including seven league titles, five UEFA Champions Leagues, the UEFA European Championship and the UEFA Nations League. Ronaldo holds the records for most appearances (183), goals (140), and assists (42) in the Champions League, goals in the European Championship (14), men's international goals (122), and men's international appearances (198). He is one of the few players to have made over 1,100 professional career appearances, and has scored over 800 official senior career goals for club and country. ### Answer: Ronaldo has won more Ballon d'Or awards than any other European plan. He has made more than 1100 professional appearances and score more than 800 official senior goals.</s>

What is binary search ?

In computer science, binary search, also known as half-interval search, logarithmic search, or binary chop, is a search algorithm that finds the position of a target value within a sorted array. Binary search compares the target value to the middle element of the array. If they are not equal, the half in which the target cannot lie is eliminated and the search continues on the remaining half, again taking the middle element to compare to the target value, and repeating this until the target value is found. If the search ends with the remaining half being empty, the target is not in the array. The binary search runs in logarithmic time in the worst case, making O(log n) comparisons, where n is the number of elements in the array. Binary search is faster than linear search except for small arrays. However, the array must be sorted first to apply binary search. There are specialized data structures designed for fast searching, such as hash tables, that can be searched more efficiently than binary search. However, binary search can solve a wider range of problems, such as finding the next-smallest or next-largest element in the array relative to the target even if it is absent from the array. There are numerous variations of binary search. In particular, fractional cascading speeds up binary searches for the same value in multiple arrays. Fractional cascading efficiently solves several search problems in computational geometry and numerous other fields. Exponential search extends binary search to unbounded lists. The binary search tree and B-tree data structures are based on binary search.

Binary search is a search algorithm that finds the position of a target value in a sorted array. It eliminates the half in which the target value cannot lie. It searches the value in the other half. This continues by repeating the middle element to compare to the target value until the target value is found. Binary search is faster than linear search except for small arrays.

summarization

### Instruction: What is binary search ? ### Context: In computer science, binary search, also known as half-interval search, logarithmic search, or binary chop, is a search algorithm that finds the position of a target value within a sorted array. Binary search compares the target value to the middle element of the array. If they are not equal, the half in which the target cannot lie is eliminated and the search continues on the remaining half, again taking the middle element to compare to the target value, and repeating this until the target value is found. If the search ends with the remaining half being empty, the target is not in the array. The binary search runs in logarithmic time in the worst case, making O(log n) comparisons, where n is the number of elements in the array. Binary search is faster than linear search except for small arrays. However, the array must be sorted first to apply binary search. There are specialized data structures designed for fast searching, such as hash tables, that can be searched more efficiently than binary search. However, binary search can solve a wider range of problems, such as finding the next-smallest or next-largest element in the array relative to the target even if it is absent from the array. There are numerous variations of binary search. In particular, fractional cascading speeds up binary searches for the same value in multiple arrays. Fractional cascading efficiently solves several search problems in computational geometry and numerous other fields. Exponential search extends binary search to unbounded lists. The binary search tree and B-tree data structures are based on binary search. ### Answer: Binary search is a search algorithm that finds the position of a target value in a sorted array. It eliminates the half in which the target value cannot lie. It searches the value in the other half. This continues by repeating the middle element to compare to the target value until the target value is found. Binary search is faster than linear search except for small arrays.</s>

Please provide a short summary on Harshad Mehta scam.

Harshad Shantilal Mehta (29 July 1954 — 31 December 2001) was an Indian stockbroker and a convicted fraudster. Mehta's involvement in the 1992 Indian securities scam made him infamous as a market manipulator.

Of the 27 criminal charges brought against Mehta, he was only convicted of four, before his death (by sudden heart attack) at age 47 in 2001. It was alleged that Mehta engaged in a massive stock manipulation scheme financed by worthless bank receipts, which his firm brokered for "ready forward" transactions between banks. Mehta was convicted by the Bombay High Court and the Supreme Court of India for his part in a financial scandal valued at ₹100 billion (US$1.3 billion) which took place on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE). The scandal exposed the loopholes in the Indian banking system and the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) transaction system, and consequently the SEBI introduced new rules to cover those loopholes. He was on trial for 9 years, until he died at the end of 2001 from a heart attack.

summarization

### Instruction: Please provide a short summary on Harshad Mehta scam. ### Context: Harshad Shantilal Mehta (29 July 1954 — 31 December 2001) was an Indian stockbroker and a convicted fraudster. Mehta's involvement in the 1992 Indian securities scam made him infamous as a market manipulator. ### Answer: Of the 27 criminal charges brought against Mehta, he was only convicted of four, before his death (by sudden heart attack) at age 47 in 2001. It was alleged that Mehta engaged in a massive stock manipulation scheme financed by worthless bank receipts, which his firm brokered for "ready forward" transactions between banks. Mehta was convicted by the Bombay High Court and the Supreme Court of India for his part in a financial scandal valued at ₹100 billion (US$1.3 billion) which took place on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE). The scandal exposed the loopholes in the Indian banking system and the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) transaction system, and consequently the SEBI introduced new rules to cover those loopholes. He was on trial for 9 years, until he died at the end of 2001 from a heart attack.</s>

List down some key points about jewel diamond from given text

Diamond is a solid form of the element carbon with its atoms arranged in a crystal structure called diamond cubic. Another solid form of carbon known as graphite is the chemically stable form of carbon at room temperature and pressure, but diamond is metastable and converts to it at a negligible rate under those conditions. Diamond has the highest hardness and thermal conductivity of any natural material, properties that are used in major industrial applications such as cutting and polishing tools. They are also the reason that diamond anvil cells can subject materials to pressures found deep in the Earth.

1. With its atoms grouped in what is known as a diamond cubic crystal structure, diamond is a solid form of the element carbon. 2. The chemically stable form of carbon at room temperature and pressure is another solid form of carbon known as graphite, but diamond is metastable and only slightly converts to it under those conditions. 3. Because of its superior hardness and thermal conductivity compared to other natural materials, diamond is frequently employed in high-tech industrial products like cutting and polishing equipment. 4. They also allow materials to be subjected to pressures observed at great depths in the Earth in diamond anvil cells.

summarization

### Instruction: List down some key points about jewel diamond from given text ### Context: Diamond is a solid form of the element carbon with its atoms arranged in a crystal structure called diamond cubic. Another solid form of carbon known as graphite is the chemically stable form of carbon at room temperature and pressure, but diamond is metastable and converts to it at a negligible rate under those conditions. Diamond has the highest hardness and thermal conductivity of any natural material, properties that are used in major industrial applications such as cutting and polishing tools. They are also the reason that diamond anvil cells can subject materials to pressures found deep in the Earth. ### Answer: 1. With its atoms grouped in what is known as a diamond cubic crystal structure, diamond is a solid form of the element carbon. 2. The chemically stable form of carbon at room temperature and pressure is another solid form of carbon known as graphite, but diamond is metastable and only slightly converts to it under those conditions. 3. Because of its superior hardness and thermal conductivity compared to other natural materials, diamond is frequently employed in high-tech industrial products like cutting and polishing equipment. 4. They also allow materials to be subjected to pressures observed at great depths in the Earth in diamond anvil cells.</s>

What kind of newspaper is the Secolo d'Italia

Secolo d'Italia ([ˈsɛːkolo diˈtaːlja]; "Century of Italy") is a daily, conservative, online newspaper in Italy, published since 1952, formerly supporting neo-fascism. In 2012, it ceased its print edition and continued as an online-only publication.

The Secolo d'Italia, Century of Italy, is a daily, conservative, online newspaper in Italy, published since 1952, formerly supporting neo-fascism. In 2012, it ceased its print edition and continued as an online-only publication.

summarization

### Instruction: What kind of newspaper is the Secolo d'Italia ### Context: Secolo d'Italia ([ˈsɛːkolo diˈtaːlja]; "Century of Italy") is a daily, conservative, online newspaper in Italy, published since 1952, formerly supporting neo-fascism. In 2012, it ceased its print edition and continued as an online-only publication. ### Answer: The Secolo d'Italia, Century of Italy, is a daily, conservative, online newspaper in Italy, published since 1952, formerly supporting neo-fascism. In 2012, it ceased its print edition and continued as an online-only publication.</s>

Please give me a short bulleted list of what happened in the 2023 Covenant School shooting incident

On March 27, 2023, a mass shooting occurred at The Covenant School, a private Presbyterian Church in America parochial school in the Green Hills neighborhood of Nashville, Tennessee. Local resident and former student of the school Aiden Hale (formerly Audrey Elizabeth Hale) killed three children and three adults. Hale, 28, was killed by two Metropolitan Nashville Police Department officers responding to the incident. Hale was initially reported to be a woman and referred to by his birth name by police. Later, it was confirmed that Hale was a trans man who went by the name Aiden and used he/him pronouns. Hale drove a Honda Fit to the school, arriving at 9:54 a.m. CDT and parking it in the lot. At 9:57, Hale sent an Instagram message to an old friend saying an earlier post he made was "basically a suicide note" and that he planned to die that day. His friend called a crisis hotline before contacting the Davidson County Sheriff's Office at 10:13. At 10:11, Hale shot through a set of glass side doors and entered the building. He was armed with two rifles and a pistol. At 10:13, police received a call about an active shooter. He walked across the second floor of the school before opening fire. He fired into several classrooms; no one in the classrooms was injured because the teachers had fortified doors and sheltered the students. The police first arrived at the school at 10:24. A teacher told an officer that the students were in lockdown and two were missing. Officers entered the building at 10:25 and they searched each room for Hale. They heard gunshots coming from the second floor. Five Metro Nashville police officers went upstairs and saw him in a lobby area, firing through a window at arriving police vehicles. Two of the officers fired four times each killing him at 10:27, 14 minutes after the initial 911 call was made

Hale, 28, a former student killed three children and three adults as part of a mass shooting that occurred at The Covenant School, a private Presbyterian Church in America parochial school in the Green Hills neighborhood of Nashville, Tennessee.

summarization

### Instruction: Please give me a short bulleted list of what happened in the 2023 Covenant School shooting incident ### Context: On March 27, 2023, a mass shooting occurred at The Covenant School, a private Presbyterian Church in America parochial school in the Green Hills neighborhood of Nashville, Tennessee. Local resident and former student of the school Aiden Hale (formerly Audrey Elizabeth Hale) killed three children and three adults. Hale, 28, was killed by two Metropolitan Nashville Police Department officers responding to the incident. Hale was initially reported to be a woman and referred to by his birth name by police. Later, it was confirmed that Hale was a trans man who went by the name Aiden and used he/him pronouns. Hale drove a Honda Fit to the school, arriving at 9:54 a.m. CDT and parking it in the lot. At 9:57, Hale sent an Instagram message to an old friend saying an earlier post he made was "basically a suicide note" and that he planned to die that day. His friend called a crisis hotline before contacting the Davidson County Sheriff's Office at 10:13. At 10:11, Hale shot through a set of glass side doors and entered the building. He was armed with two rifles and a pistol. At 10:13, police received a call about an active shooter. He walked across the second floor of the school before opening fire. He fired into several classrooms; no one in the classrooms was injured because the teachers had fortified doors and sheltered the students. The police first arrived at the school at 10:24. A teacher told an officer that the students were in lockdown and two were missing. Officers entered the building at 10:25 and they searched each room for Hale. They heard gunshots coming from the second floor. Five Metro Nashville police officers went upstairs and saw him in a lobby area, firing through a window at arriving police vehicles. Two of the officers fired four times each killing him at 10:27, 14 minutes after the initial 911 call was made ### Answer: Hale, 28, a former student killed three children and three adults as part of a mass shooting that occurred at The Covenant School, a private Presbyterian Church in America parochial school in the Green Hills neighborhood of Nashville, Tennessee.</s>

Why do cats purr?

In domestic cats, many signals that occur when interacting with humans seem to originate from when the animal was dependent on the mother. Cats have been observed to purr for most of their lifespan, starting from when they were young and suckling from their mother. Purring may have developed as an evolutionary advantage as a signaling mechanism of reassurance between mother cats and nursing kittens. Post-nursing cats often purr as a sign of contentment: when being petted, becoming relaxed, or eating. Some purring may be a signal to another animal that the purring cat does not pose a threat.

Cats purr for a variety of reasons. Purring can be a sign of contentment or comfort, for example when being pet, while relaxing or eating. It is thought that purring may have developed as an evolutionary trait signaling reassurance between the mother cat and its nursing kittens.

summarization

### Instruction: Why do cats purr? ### Context: In domestic cats, many signals that occur when interacting with humans seem to originate from when the animal was dependent on the mother. Cats have been observed to purr for most of their lifespan, starting from when they were young and suckling from their mother. Purring may have developed as an evolutionary advantage as a signaling mechanism of reassurance between mother cats and nursing kittens. Post-nursing cats often purr as a sign of contentment: when being petted, becoming relaxed, or eating. Some purring may be a signal to another animal that the purring cat does not pose a threat. ### Answer: Cats purr for a variety of reasons. Purring can be a sign of contentment or comfort, for example when being pet, while relaxing or eating. It is thought that purring may have developed as an evolutionary trait signaling reassurance between the mother cat and its nursing kittens.</s>

Without quoting directly from the text, give me a summary of what the show "South Park" is about.

South Park centers around four boys: Stan Marsh, Kyle Broflovski, Eric Cartman and Kenny McCormick. The boys live in the fictional small town of South Park, located within the real-life South Park basin in the Rocky Mountains of central Colorado, approximately a one-hour drive from Denver. The town is also home to an assortment of other characters, including students, families, elementary school staff, and other various residents. Prominent settings include South Park Elementary, various neighborhoods and the surrounding mountain range, actual Colorado landmarks, and the businesses along the town's main street, all of which are based on the appearance of similar locations in Fairplay, Colorado. As one of the few television programs set in the Mountain West region that takes place outside the urban core of Denver, South Park frequently features the unique culture of the region, including cattle ranchers, Old West theme parks, snowy climates, mountaineering, Mormons, real-life Colorado locations such as Casa Bonita and Cave of the Winds, and many other regionally specific characteristics. Stan is portrayed as the everyman of the group, described in official media as an "average, American 4th grader." Kyle is Jewish, and his portrayal as one of the few such people in South Park is often dealt with satirically. Stan is modeled after Parker, while Kyle is modeled after Stone. They are best friends, and their friendship, symbolically intended to reflect Parker and Stone's friendship, is a common topic throughout the series. Cartman (as he is commonly referred to) is amoral and increasingly psychopathic, and is commonly portrayed as an antagonist. His staunch antisemitism has resulted in a progressive rivalry with Kyle. Kenny, who comes from a poor family, tightly wears his parka hood to the point where it obscures most of his face and muffles his speech. During the first five seasons, Kenny died in almost every episode before reappearing in the next with no definite explanation. He was killed off in the fifth season episode "Kenny Dies", being reintroduced in the sixth season finale. Since then, Kenny is depicted as dying sporadically. During the first 58 episodes, the children were in the third grade. During the fourth season, they entered the fourth grade, where they have remained ever since. Plots are often set in motion by events, ranging from the fairly typical to the supernatural and extraordinary, which frequently happen in the town. The boys often act as the voice of reason when these events cause panic or incongruous behavior among the adult populace, who are customarily depicted as irrational, gullible, and prone to overreaction. They are frequently confused by the contradictory and hypocritical behavior of their parents and other adults, and often perceive them as having distorted views on morality and society.

"South Park" is a comedic cartoon about four boys who live in a fictitious town called South Park, Colorado. The four boys are best friends and go on various adventures, where they run into situations that tackle moral and hypocritical situations they see from the adults in town. The show is a satire and often will center around a prevelant worldly topic.

summarization

### Instruction: Without quoting directly from the text, give me a summary of what the show "South Park" is about. ### Context: South Park centers around four boys: Stan Marsh, Kyle Broflovski, Eric Cartman and Kenny McCormick. The boys live in the fictional small town of South Park, located within the real-life South Park basin in the Rocky Mountains of central Colorado, approximately a one-hour drive from Denver. The town is also home to an assortment of other characters, including students, families, elementary school staff, and other various residents. Prominent settings include South Park Elementary, various neighborhoods and the surrounding mountain range, actual Colorado landmarks, and the businesses along the town's main street, all of which are based on the appearance of similar locations in Fairplay, Colorado. As one of the few television programs set in the Mountain West region that takes place outside the urban core of Denver, South Park frequently features the unique culture of the region, including cattle ranchers, Old West theme parks, snowy climates, mountaineering, Mormons, real-life Colorado locations such as Casa Bonita and Cave of the Winds, and many other regionally specific characteristics. Stan is portrayed as the everyman of the group, described in official media as an "average, American 4th grader." Kyle is Jewish, and his portrayal as one of the few such people in South Park is often dealt with satirically. Stan is modeled after Parker, while Kyle is modeled after Stone. They are best friends, and their friendship, symbolically intended to reflect Parker and Stone's friendship, is a common topic throughout the series. Cartman (as he is commonly referred to) is amoral and increasingly psychopathic, and is commonly portrayed as an antagonist. His staunch antisemitism has resulted in a progressive rivalry with Kyle. Kenny, who comes from a poor family, tightly wears his parka hood to the point where it obscures most of his face and muffles his speech. During the first five seasons, Kenny died in almost every episode before reappearing in the next with no definite explanation. He was killed off in the fifth season episode "Kenny Dies", being reintroduced in the sixth season finale. Since then, Kenny is depicted as dying sporadically. During the first 58 episodes, the children were in the third grade. During the fourth season, they entered the fourth grade, where they have remained ever since. Plots are often set in motion by events, ranging from the fairly typical to the supernatural and extraordinary, which frequently happen in the town. The boys often act as the voice of reason when these events cause panic or incongruous behavior among the adult populace, who are customarily depicted as irrational, gullible, and prone to overreaction. They are frequently confused by the contradictory and hypocritical behavior of their parents and other adults, and often perceive them as having distorted views on morality and society. ### Answer: "South Park" is a comedic cartoon about four boys who live in a fictitious town called South Park, Colorado. The four boys are best friends and go on various adventures, where they run into situations that tackle moral and hypocritical situations they see from the adults in town. The show is a satire and often will center around a prevelant worldly topic.</s>

Based on this paragraph, what does Briony mean when she says at the conclusion: ""I like to think that it isn't weakness or evasion, but a final act of kindness, a stand against oblivion and despair, to let my lovers live and to unite them at the end."

The final section, titled "London 1999", is narrated by Briony herself in the form of a diary entry. Now 77, she is a successful novelist who has recently been diagnosed with vascular dementia, so she is facing rapid mental decline. The reader learns that Briony is the author of the preceding sections of the novel. Briony attends a party in her honor at the Tallis family home, where the extended Tallis children perform The Trials of Arabella, the play that 13-year-old Briony had written and unsuccessfully attempted to stage with her cousins in the summer of 1935. Leon and Pierrot are in attendance, Jackson is fifteen years deceased, and Lola is alive but does not attend. Finally, Briony reveals to the reader that Robbie Turner died of septicaemia on the beaches of Dunkirk, that Cecilia was killed several months later when a bomb destroyed Balham Underground station during the Blitz, and that Briony's story of seeing them together in 1940 was a fabrication. Briony did attend Lola's wedding to Paul Marshall, but confesses she was too "cowardly" to visit the recently bereaved Cecilia to make amends. The novel, which she says is factually true apart from Robbie and Cecilia being reunited, is her lifelong attempt at "atonement" for what she did to them. Briony justifies her invented happy ending by saying she does not see what purpose it would serve to give readers a "pitiless" story. She writes, "I like to think that it isn't weakness or evasion, but a final act of kindness, a stand against oblivion and despair, to let my lovers live and to unite them at the end."

Based on this passage, Briony is explaining, as the narrator of the novel, why she fabricated the portion of the story involving the reunion of Robbie and Cecilia.

summarization

### Instruction: Based on this paragraph, what does Briony mean when she says at the conclusion: ""I like to think that it isn't weakness or evasion, but a final act of kindness, a stand against oblivion and despair, to let my lovers live and to unite them at the end." ### Context: The final section, titled "London 1999", is narrated by Briony herself in the form of a diary entry. Now 77, she is a successful novelist who has recently been diagnosed with vascular dementia, so she is facing rapid mental decline. The reader learns that Briony is the author of the preceding sections of the novel. Briony attends a party in her honor at the Tallis family home, where the extended Tallis children perform The Trials of Arabella, the play that 13-year-old Briony had written and unsuccessfully attempted to stage with her cousins in the summer of 1935. Leon and Pierrot are in attendance, Jackson is fifteen years deceased, and Lola is alive but does not attend. Finally, Briony reveals to the reader that Robbie Turner died of septicaemia on the beaches of Dunkirk, that Cecilia was killed several months later when a bomb destroyed Balham Underground station during the Blitz, and that Briony's story of seeing them together in 1940 was a fabrication. Briony did attend Lola's wedding to Paul Marshall, but confesses she was too "cowardly" to visit the recently bereaved Cecilia to make amends. The novel, which she says is factually true apart from Robbie and Cecilia being reunited, is her lifelong attempt at "atonement" for what she did to them. Briony justifies her invented happy ending by saying she does not see what purpose it would serve to give readers a "pitiless" story. She writes, "I like to think that it isn't weakness or evasion, but a final act of kindness, a stand against oblivion and despair, to let my lovers live and to unite them at the end." ### Answer: Based on this passage, Briony is explaining, as the narrator of the novel, why she fabricated the portion of the story involving the reunion of Robbie and Cecilia.</s>

What events did John James Monckton set the world record for?

John James Monckton (28 October 1938 – 29 June 2017) was an Australian backstroke swimmer who won a silver medal in the 100-metre event at the 1956 Summer Olympics in Melbourne. Although he set multiple world records, he never won an Olympic gold medal. An apprentice carpenter from the New England region of New South Wales, Monckton appeared to be primed to win gold at the 1956 Olympics. At the national team camp in Townsville before the games, he became the first person to swim 400-metre backstroke in under five minutes. Although it was not a regularly contested event at international level, it was a promising sign for the event to be included for medal competition in the Olympics. He also set world records in the 110- and 220-yard freestyle events. At the Olympics, Monckton was the fastest qualifier in the heats and semifinal, but was upstaged in the final by teammate David Theile. In the absence of Theile, who had retired after the Olympics to study medicine at university, Monckton dominated backstroke swimming, winning the 110-yard backstroke event at the 1958 British Empire and Commonwealth Games in Cardiff and also the 4×110-yard medley relay. Monckton then prepared for another Olympics in 1960 in Rome, with Theile deferring his studies to defend his Olympic title. Monckton again led the qualifying in the heats and semifinals. However, in the final, he misjudged the turn and broke a finger. He limped home in seventh position, with Theile successfully defending his title. Monckton continued competing in the hope of reaching a third Olympics in 1964, but retired after his performances began to deteriorate. He married Maureen Giles, an Australian swimmer at the 1956 Olympics. He was inducted into the Sport Australia Hall of Fame in 1999. The Monckton Aquatic Centre in his hometown of Armidale is named for him.

John James Monckton set world records for the 400-metre backstroke, 220-yard freestyle and 110-yard freestyle events.

summarization

### Instruction: What events did John James Monckton set the world record for? ### Context: John James Monckton (28 October 1938 – 29 June 2017) was an Australian backstroke swimmer who won a silver medal in the 100-metre event at the 1956 Summer Olympics in Melbourne. Although he set multiple world records, he never won an Olympic gold medal. An apprentice carpenter from the New England region of New South Wales, Monckton appeared to be primed to win gold at the 1956 Olympics. At the national team camp in Townsville before the games, he became the first person to swim 400-metre backstroke in under five minutes. Although it was not a regularly contested event at international level, it was a promising sign for the event to be included for medal competition in the Olympics. He also set world records in the 110- and 220-yard freestyle events. At the Olympics, Monckton was the fastest qualifier in the heats and semifinal, but was upstaged in the final by teammate David Theile. In the absence of Theile, who had retired after the Olympics to study medicine at university, Monckton dominated backstroke swimming, winning the 110-yard backstroke event at the 1958 British Empire and Commonwealth Games in Cardiff and also the 4×110-yard medley relay. Monckton then prepared for another Olympics in 1960 in Rome, with Theile deferring his studies to defend his Olympic title. Monckton again led the qualifying in the heats and semifinals. However, in the final, he misjudged the turn and broke a finger. He limped home in seventh position, with Theile successfully defending his title. Monckton continued competing in the hope of reaching a third Olympics in 1964, but retired after his performances began to deteriorate. He married Maureen Giles, an Australian swimmer at the 1956 Olympics. He was inducted into the Sport Australia Hall of Fame in 1999. The Monckton Aquatic Centre in his hometown of Armidale is named for him. ### Answer: John James Monckton set world records for the 400-metre backstroke, 220-yard freestyle and 110-yard freestyle events.</s>

Tell me a few flaws of the Human Development Index from this passage

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a statistic composite index of life expectancy, education (mean years of schooling completed and expected years of schooling upon entering the education system), and per capita income indicators, which is used to rank countries into four tiers of human development. A country scores a higher level of HDI when the lifespan is higher, the education level is higher, and the gross national income GNI (PPP) per capita is higher. It was developed by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and was further used to measure a country's development by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)'s Human Development Report Office. The 2010 Human Development Report introduced an Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI). While the simple HDI remains useful, it stated that "the IHDI is the actual level of human development (accounting for inequality), while the HDI can be viewed as an index of 'potential' human development (or the maximum level of HDI) that could be achieved if there were no inequality." The index is based on the human development approach, developed by Mahbub ul Haq, anchored in Amartya Sen's work on human capabilities, and often framed in terms of whether people are able to "be" and "do" desirable things in life. Examples include – being: well fed, sheltered, and healthy; doing: work, education, voting, participating in community life. The freedom of choice is central – someone choosing to be hungry (e.g. when fasting for religious reasons) is quite different from someone who is hungry because they cannot afford to buy food, or because the country is in a famine. The index does not take into account several factors, such as the net wealth per capita or the relative quality of goods in a country. This situation tends to lower the ranking of some of the most developed countries, such as the G7 members and others.

Human Development Index has been revised in 2010 owing to a few limitations. HDI is believed to estimate the 'potential' human development that could be achieved if there were no inequality. The revised Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) is the actual level of human development (accounting for inequality). Secondly, HDI does not take into account several factors, such as the net wealth per capita or the relative quality of goods in a country. This situation tends to lower the ranking of some of the most developed countries, such as the G7 members and others.

summarization

### Instruction: Tell me a few flaws of the Human Development Index from this passage ### Context: The Human Development Index (HDI) is a statistic composite index of life expectancy, education (mean years of schooling completed and expected years of schooling upon entering the education system), and per capita income indicators, which is used to rank countries into four tiers of human development. A country scores a higher level of HDI when the lifespan is higher, the education level is higher, and the gross national income GNI (PPP) per capita is higher. It was developed by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and was further used to measure a country's development by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)'s Human Development Report Office. The 2010 Human Development Report introduced an Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI). While the simple HDI remains useful, it stated that "the IHDI is the actual level of human development (accounting for inequality), while the HDI can be viewed as an index of 'potential' human development (or the maximum level of HDI) that could be achieved if there were no inequality." The index is based on the human development approach, developed by Mahbub ul Haq, anchored in Amartya Sen's work on human capabilities, and often framed in terms of whether people are able to "be" and "do" desirable things in life. Examples include – being: well fed, sheltered, and healthy; doing: work, education, voting, participating in community life. The freedom of choice is central – someone choosing to be hungry (e.g. when fasting for religious reasons) is quite different from someone who is hungry because they cannot afford to buy food, or because the country is in a famine. The index does not take into account several factors, such as the net wealth per capita or the relative quality of goods in a country. This situation tends to lower the ranking of some of the most developed countries, such as the G7 members and others. ### Answer: Human Development Index has been revised in 2010 owing to a few limitations. HDI is believed to estimate the 'potential' human development that could be achieved if there were no inequality. The revised Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) is the actual level of human development (accounting for inequality). Secondly, HDI does not take into account several factors, such as the net wealth per capita or the relative quality of goods in a country. This situation tends to lower the ranking of some of the most developed countries, such as the G7 members and others.</s>

Summarize some of the controversies about Lululemon Athletica

Lululemon Athletica lululemon athletica inc. (/ˌluːluˈlɛmən/; styled in all lowercase) is a Canadian multinational athletic apparel retailer headquartered in British Columbia and incorporated in Delaware, United States. It was founded in 1998 as a retailer of yoga pants and other yoga wear, and has expanded to also sell athletic wear, lifestyle apparel, accessories, and personal care products. The company has 574 stores internationally, and also sells online. History Lululemon was founded in 1998 by Chip Wilson in Vancouver, with its first standalone store opening in November 2000. Wilson created the name to have many L's so that it would sound western to Japanese buyers, who often have difficulty pronouncing the letter. He later remarked that he found it "funny to watch [Japanese speakers] try and say it" and that "it was the only reason behind the name". The company's initial public offering was in July 2007, raising $327.6 million by selling 18.2 million shares. Christine Day, a former co-president of Starbucks, became chief executive officer in 2008. In 2013, the company made its third consecutive appearance on Fortune's Fastest-Growing Companies list. In December 2013, founder Chip Wilson announced his resignation as chairman, and that the president of TOMS Shoes, Laurent Potdevin, would become CEO. In 2014, Lululemon opened its first store in Europe, a flagship shop in Covent Garden, London. In February 2015, Wilson announced that he was resigning from the board, and that Michael Casey, former lead director of the board, would replace him. In 2018, Laurent Potdevin resigned as CEO and from the company's board due to misconduct. From its founding through 2015, Lululemon incorporated elements of Landmark Forum into its leadership and development training. According to a company source, seventy per cent of managers are hired internally. Store managers are responsible for their store's layout, color coordination, and community involvement. In 2019, Lululemon announced an investment in MIRROR, a fitness startup that sells an interactive mirror with a camera and speakers for at-home workouts. The companies planned to create new content for the device, starting with meditation classes. In June 2020, Lululemon announced a $500 million deal to purchase MIRROR, capitalizing on a growing trend of people conducting virtual workouts at home instead of going to a gym due to the COVID-19 pandemic. The company eventually took a post-tax impairment charge of $442.7 million related to the acquisition at the end of fiscal 2022. Products Lululemon sells athletic wear including tops, yoga pants – a product that the company invented, shorts, sweaters, jackets and undergarments, as well as hair accessories, bags, yoga mats, water bottles, and personal care products such as deodorant and dry shampoo. Lululemon trademarked its original fabric, Luon, which included a higher-than-average amount of nylon microfiber, in 2005. Since then, the company has produced several different types of fabrics, including compression and moisture-wicking designs. Lululemon is primarily known for their leggings, which first made the brand popular. Lululemon maintains a research and development lab, "Whitespace," within its headquarters. It has around 50 employees including scientists and physiologists. In 2019, the company launched a luxury streetwear brand called Lab in a few of its stores. In the same year, the company announced plans to double its men's business in the next five years beyond its women's and accessory business, competing against other athletic wear such as Nike and Under Armour. Marketing Two Lululemon stores with their products in exhibition, (left) Promenade; (right): Hong Kong Originally known for women's yoga apparel, by 2019 Lululemon had grown by acquiring more male customers and adapting its product and marketing strategies accordingly; it plans to increase awareness of its brand among men. The company has been stated to use "holistic guerrilla marketing", aiming to make customers feel that by wearing Lululemon clothing they are part of a larger community. It uses social media including Facebook, Twitter and Instagram as a main method of marketing the company and its products. Lululemon offers fitness instructors 25 percent off their orders. Controversies In November 2007, The New York Times reported that Lululemon made false claims about its Vitasea clothing product; the firm had claimed that the clothing, made from seaweed, provided "anti-inflammatory, antibacterial, hydrating and detoxifying benefits" but laboratory tests failed to find significant differences in mineral levels between ordinary T-shirt cotton and Vitasea fabric. Lululemon was subsequently forced to remove all health claims from its seaweed-based products marketed in Canada, following a demand from a Canadian oversight agency, the Competition Bureau of Canada. In 2013, some customers complained that the clothing was of poor quality, with some items being "too sheer", having holes appear, and falling apart after a few uses. In December 2010, Lululemon recalled some of the store's reusable bags that were made from polypropylene, based on reports of high levels of lead. In 2013, Lululemon recalled its black yoga pants that were unintentionally transparent and "too thin"; the recall, which amounted to approximately 17 percent of all women's pants sold in its stores, impacted its financial results. The resulting financial loss and damage to the brand led to the forced departure of the company's Chief product officer, Sheree Waterson, and of its CEO, Christine Day. Founder Chip Wilson has made numerous controversial statements. In a 2004 interview, Wilson mocked Japanese pronunciation of the company's name. In 2013 he said that the company did not make clothes for plus-size women because it was too costly. In an effort to explain away excessive pilling in the brand's clothing, he blamed some customers for wearing Lululemon's clothes improperly or for having body shapes inconsistent with his clothes. In an interview for Bloomberg TV in 2013, he stated that some women's bodies were unsuitable for the brand's clothing. Time called the remarks "fat shaming". Comments such as these reportedly led to Wilson's resignation as chairman. In June 2016, Wilson published an open letter to shareholders stating that the company had "lost its way" and given up market share to Nike and Under Armour, after he was denied the opportunity to speak at the company's annual meetings. Since then, Wilson has used his website "Elevate Lululemon" to criticize the brand and business. In 2012, Lululemon filed a lawsuit against Calvin Klein and supplier G-III Apparel Group for infringement of three of its design patents for yoga pants. The lawsuit was somewhat unusual as it involved a designer seeking to assert intellectual property protection in clothing through patent rights. The case was settled out of court the same year. In 2021, a Business Insider report revealed that an unnamed company director pushed employees to create an All Lives Matter campaign to be displayed on its website in response to the murder of George Floyd. Employees pushed back but were told to move forward and create a mock up with the All Lives Matter copy, however they also created a Black Lives Matter artwork mock up that in the end was selected instead. The director apologized to 200 members of the company over conference call and subsequently left the company. In September 2022, 1,698 yoga teachers and students via advocacy groups Stand.earth and Actions Speaks Louder wrote to the company demanding a transition to 100% renewable energy by 2030. They claimed that roughly half of the firm's energy came from coal production.

- False claims about one of their products in 2007 - Poor quality complains about clothing material in 2013 - Ex-CEO's controversial statements in numerous occasions between 2004 and 2016 - Lawsuit against Calvin Klein and supplier G-III Apparel Group on patent rights in 2012 - An internal dispute over an All Lives Matter campaign pushed by an unnamed director who later apologized and left the company - A public demand of the company to transition to renewable energy from coal energy from a group of yoga teachers and students in 2022

summarization

### Instruction: Summarize some of the controversies about Lululemon Athletica ### Context: Lululemon Athletica lululemon athletica inc. (/ˌluːluˈlɛmən/; styled in all lowercase) is a Canadian multinational athletic apparel retailer headquartered in British Columbia and incorporated in Delaware, United States. It was founded in 1998 as a retailer of yoga pants and other yoga wear, and has expanded to also sell athletic wear, lifestyle apparel, accessories, and personal care products. The company has 574 stores internationally, and also sells online. History Lululemon was founded in 1998 by Chip Wilson in Vancouver, with its first standalone store opening in November 2000. Wilson created the name to have many L's so that it would sound western to Japanese buyers, who often have difficulty pronouncing the letter. He later remarked that he found it "funny to watch [Japanese speakers] try and say it" and that "it was the only reason behind the name". The company's initial public offering was in July 2007, raising $327.6 million by selling 18.2 million shares. Christine Day, a former co-president of Starbucks, became chief executive officer in 2008. In 2013, the company made its third consecutive appearance on Fortune's Fastest-Growing Companies list. In December 2013, founder Chip Wilson announced his resignation as chairman, and that the president of TOMS Shoes, Laurent Potdevin, would become CEO. In 2014, Lululemon opened its first store in Europe, a flagship shop in Covent Garden, London. In February 2015, Wilson announced that he was resigning from the board, and that Michael Casey, former lead director of the board, would replace him. In 2018, Laurent Potdevin resigned as CEO and from the company's board due to misconduct. From its founding through 2015, Lululemon incorporated elements of Landmark Forum into its leadership and development training. According to a company source, seventy per cent of managers are hired internally. Store managers are responsible for their store's layout, color coordination, and community involvement. In 2019, Lululemon announced an investment in MIRROR, a fitness startup that sells an interactive mirror with a camera and speakers for at-home workouts. The companies planned to create new content for the device, starting with meditation classes. In June 2020, Lululemon announced a $500 million deal to purchase MIRROR, capitalizing on a growing trend of people conducting virtual workouts at home instead of going to a gym due to the COVID-19 pandemic. The company eventually took a post-tax impairment charge of $442.7 million related to the acquisition at the end of fiscal 2022. Products Lululemon sells athletic wear including tops, yoga pants – a product that the company invented, shorts, sweaters, jackets and undergarments, as well as hair accessories, bags, yoga mats, water bottles, and personal care products such as deodorant and dry shampoo. Lululemon trademarked its original fabric, Luon, which included a higher-than-average amount of nylon microfiber, in 2005. Since then, the company has produced several different types of fabrics, including compression and moisture-wicking designs. Lululemon is primarily known for their leggings, which first made the brand popular. Lululemon maintains a research and development lab, "Whitespace," within its headquarters. It has around 50 employees including scientists and physiologists. In 2019, the company launched a luxury streetwear brand called Lab in a few of its stores. In the same year, the company announced plans to double its men's business in the next five years beyond its women's and accessory business, competing against other athletic wear such as Nike and Under Armour. Marketing Two Lululemon stores with their products in exhibition, (left) Promenade; (right): Hong Kong Originally known for women's yoga apparel, by 2019 Lululemon had grown by acquiring more male customers and adapting its product and marketing strategies accordingly; it plans to increase awareness of its brand among men. The company has been stated to use "holistic guerrilla marketing", aiming to make customers feel that by wearing Lululemon clothing they are part of a larger community. It uses social media including Facebook, Twitter and Instagram as a main method of marketing the company and its products. Lululemon offers fitness instructors 25 percent off their orders. Controversies In November 2007, The New York Times reported that Lululemon made false claims about its Vitasea clothing product; the firm had claimed that the clothing, made from seaweed, provided "anti-inflammatory, antibacterial, hydrating and detoxifying benefits" but laboratory tests failed to find significant differences in mineral levels between ordinary T-shirt cotton and Vitasea fabric. Lululemon was subsequently forced to remove all health claims from its seaweed-based products marketed in Canada, following a demand from a Canadian oversight agency, the Competition Bureau of Canada. In 2013, some customers complained that the clothing was of poor quality, with some items being "too sheer", having holes appear, and falling apart after a few uses. In December 2010, Lululemon recalled some of the store's reusable bags that were made from polypropylene, based on reports of high levels of lead. In 2013, Lululemon recalled its black yoga pants that were unintentionally transparent and "too thin"; the recall, which amounted to approximately 17 percent of all women's pants sold in its stores, impacted its financial results. The resulting financial loss and damage to the brand led to the forced departure of the company's Chief product officer, Sheree Waterson, and of its CEO, Christine Day. Founder Chip Wilson has made numerous controversial statements. In a 2004 interview, Wilson mocked Japanese pronunciation of the company's name. In 2013 he said that the company did not make clothes for plus-size women because it was too costly. In an effort to explain away excessive pilling in the brand's clothing, he blamed some customers for wearing Lululemon's clothes improperly or for having body shapes inconsistent with his clothes. In an interview for Bloomberg TV in 2013, he stated that some women's bodies were unsuitable for the brand's clothing. Time called the remarks "fat shaming". Comments such as these reportedly led to Wilson's resignation as chairman. In June 2016, Wilson published an open letter to shareholders stating that the company had "lost its way" and given up market share to Nike and Under Armour, after he was denied the opportunity to speak at the company's annual meetings. Since then, Wilson has used his website "Elevate Lululemon" to criticize the brand and business. In 2012, Lululemon filed a lawsuit against Calvin Klein and supplier G-III Apparel Group for infringement of three of its design patents for yoga pants. The lawsuit was somewhat unusual as it involved a designer seeking to assert intellectual property protection in clothing through patent rights. The case was settled out of court the same year. In 2021, a Business Insider report revealed that an unnamed company director pushed employees to create an All Lives Matter campaign to be displayed on its website in response to the murder of George Floyd. Employees pushed back but were told to move forward and create a mock up with the All Lives Matter copy, however they also created a Black Lives Matter artwork mock up that in the end was selected instead. The director apologized to 200 members of the company over conference call and subsequently left the company. In September 2022, 1,698 yoga teachers and students via advocacy groups Stand.earth and Actions Speaks Louder wrote to the company demanding a transition to 100% renewable energy by 2030. They claimed that roughly half of the firm's energy came from coal production. ### Answer: - False claims about one of their products in 2007 - Poor quality complains about clothing material in 2013 - Ex-CEO's controversial statements in numerous occasions between 2004 and 2016 - Lawsuit against Calvin Klein and supplier G-III Apparel Group on patent rights in 2012 - An internal dispute over an All Lives Matter campaign pushed by an unnamed director who later apologized and left the company - A public demand of the company to transition to renewable energy from coal energy from a group of yoga teachers and students in 2022</s>

Please explain how a perpetrator's state of mind is relevant to guilt in committing a crime

In jurisprudence, animus nocendi (from Latin animus 'mind', and noceo 'to harm') is the subjective state of mind of the perpetrator of a crime, with reference to the exact knowledge of illegal content of his behaviour, and of its possible consequences. In most modern legal systems, the animus nocendi is required as an essential condition to give a penal condemnation. The animus nocendi is usually demonstrated by the verified presence of these elements: knowledge of a law that prohibited the discussed action or conduct (unless there exists a systemic obligation, pending on every citizen, that considers that the law has to be known by every adult — in this case the knowledge is presumed a priori; see also Ignorantia juris non excusat); knowledge of the most likely consequences of his action; precise intention of breaking the law or of causing the verified effects of the action. When the author of the crime had no animus nocendi, it is usually considered that the crime still exists, but the author is innocent, unless a responsibility for guilt can be found in his conduct: the typical case of a car accident in which a wrong or even hazardous manoeuvre causes personal injuries to another car driver, is then managed as a crime for the presence of injuries, yet the author will not be prosecuted as the author of the injuries (he did not want to hurt the other driver, thus he had no animus nocendi), but simply as the author of a dangerous conduct that indirectly caused said effects, and would be held responsible at a guilt title.

In most legal systems, it is required to demonstrate that the perpetrator of a crime had intent to harm, also known by the legal term "animus nocendi"(from the Latin animus "mind" and noceo "to harm"). Put plainly, this means having foreknowledge of the illegality of his act and the repercussions of the crime. Intention is important in establishing guilt for a specific crime. A good example is a car accident fatality: the driver responsible would be guilty of causing the accidental death of the victim (manslaughter), but not guilty of murder -- unless it could be established that the driver at fault intended to kill the victim.

summarization

### Instruction: Please explain how a perpetrator's state of mind is relevant to guilt in committing a crime ### Context: In jurisprudence, animus nocendi (from Latin animus 'mind', and noceo 'to harm') is the subjective state of mind of the perpetrator of a crime, with reference to the exact knowledge of illegal content of his behaviour, and of its possible consequences. In most modern legal systems, the animus nocendi is required as an essential condition to give a penal condemnation. The animus nocendi is usually demonstrated by the verified presence of these elements: knowledge of a law that prohibited the discussed action or conduct (unless there exists a systemic obligation, pending on every citizen, that considers that the law has to be known by every adult — in this case the knowledge is presumed a priori; see also Ignorantia juris non excusat); knowledge of the most likely consequences of his action; precise intention of breaking the law or of causing the verified effects of the action. When the author of the crime had no animus nocendi, it is usually considered that the crime still exists, but the author is innocent, unless a responsibility for guilt can be found in his conduct: the typical case of a car accident in which a wrong or even hazardous manoeuvre causes personal injuries to another car driver, is then managed as a crime for the presence of injuries, yet the author will not be prosecuted as the author of the injuries (he did not want to hurt the other driver, thus he had no animus nocendi), but simply as the author of a dangerous conduct that indirectly caused said effects, and would be held responsible at a guilt title. ### Answer: In most legal systems, it is required to demonstrate that the perpetrator of a crime had intent to harm, also known by the legal term "animus nocendi"(from the Latin animus "mind" and noceo "to harm"). Put plainly, this means having foreknowledge of the illegality of his act and the repercussions of the crime. Intention is important in establishing guilt for a specific crime. A good example is a car accident fatality: the driver responsible would be guilty of causing the accidental death of the victim (manslaughter), but not guilty of murder -- unless it could be established that the driver at fault intended to kill the victim.</s>

Tell me about the Battle of Rabb

The Battle of Raab or Battle of Győr (Hungarian: győri csata) was fought on 14 June 1809 during the Napoleonic Wars, between Franco-Italian forces and Habsburg forces. The battle was fought near Győr (Raab), Kingdom of Hungary, and ended in a Franco-Italian victory. The victory prevented Archduke John of Austria from bringing any significant force to the Battle of Wagram, while Prince Eugène de Beauharnais's force was able to link up with Emperor Napoleon at Vienna in time to fight at Wagram. Napoleon referred to the battle as "a granddaughter of Marengo and Friedland", as it fell on the anniversary of those two battles

The Battle of Raab was a battle fought during the Napoleonic Wars. It was fought near Raab which is the Kingdom of Hungary.

summarization

### Instruction: Tell me about the Battle of Rabb ### Context: The Battle of Raab or Battle of Győr (Hungarian: győri csata) was fought on 14 June 1809 during the Napoleonic Wars, between Franco-Italian forces and Habsburg forces. The battle was fought near Győr (Raab), Kingdom of Hungary, and ended in a Franco-Italian victory. The victory prevented Archduke John of Austria from bringing any significant force to the Battle of Wagram, while Prince Eugène de Beauharnais's force was able to link up with Emperor Napoleon at Vienna in time to fight at Wagram. Napoleon referred to the battle as "a granddaughter of Marengo and Friedland", as it fell on the anniversary of those two battles ### Answer: The Battle of Raab was a battle fought during the Napoleonic Wars. It was fought near Raab which is the Kingdom of Hungary.</s>

What are other names used for Good Friday?

Good Friday is a Christian holiday commemorating the crucifixion of Jesus and his death at Calvary. It is observed during Holy Week as part of the Paschal Triduum. It is also known as Holy Friday, Great Friday, Great and Holy Friday (also Holy and Great Friday), and Black Friday. Members of many Christian denominations, including the Catholic, Eastern Orthodox, Lutheran, Anglican, Methodist, Oriental Orthodox, United Protestant and some Reformed traditions (including certain Continental Reformed, Presbyterian and Congregationalist churches), observe Good Friday with fasting and church services. In many Catholic, Lutheran, Anglican and Methodist churches, the Service of the Great Three Hours' Agony is held from noon until 3 pm, the time duration that the Bible records as darkness covering the land to Jesus' sacrificial death on the cross. Communicants of the Moravian Church have a Good Friday tradition of cleaning gravestones in Moravian cemeteries. The date of Good Friday varies from one year to the next in both the Gregorian and Julian calendars. Eastern and Western Christianity disagree over the computation of the date of Easter and therefore of Good Friday. Good Friday is a widely instituted legal holiday around the world, including in most Western countries and 12 U.S. states. Some predominantly Christian countries, such as Germany, have laws prohibiting certain acts such as dancing and horse racing, in remembrance of the somber nature of Good Friday

Other names used for Good Friday are: Black Friday, Great and Holy Friday, Holy and Great Friday, Holy Friday, and Great Friday.

summarization

### Instruction: What are other names used for Good Friday? ### Context: Good Friday is a Christian holiday commemorating the crucifixion of Jesus and his death at Calvary. It is observed during Holy Week as part of the Paschal Triduum. It is also known as Holy Friday, Great Friday, Great and Holy Friday (also Holy and Great Friday), and Black Friday. Members of many Christian denominations, including the Catholic, Eastern Orthodox, Lutheran, Anglican, Methodist, Oriental Orthodox, United Protestant and some Reformed traditions (including certain Continental Reformed, Presbyterian and Congregationalist churches), observe Good Friday with fasting and church services. In many Catholic, Lutheran, Anglican and Methodist churches, the Service of the Great Three Hours' Agony is held from noon until 3 pm, the time duration that the Bible records as darkness covering the land to Jesus' sacrificial death on the cross. Communicants of the Moravian Church have a Good Friday tradition of cleaning gravestones in Moravian cemeteries. The date of Good Friday varies from one year to the next in both the Gregorian and Julian calendars. Eastern and Western Christianity disagree over the computation of the date of Easter and therefore of Good Friday. Good Friday is a widely instituted legal holiday around the world, including in most Western countries and 12 U.S. states. Some predominantly Christian countries, such as Germany, have laws prohibiting certain acts such as dancing and horse racing, in remembrance of the somber nature of Good Friday ### Answer: Other names used for Good Friday are: Black Friday, Great and Holy Friday, Holy and Great Friday, Holy Friday, and Great Friday.</s>

Where did Danny Dayton graduated from?

Danny Dayton (born Daniel David Segall, November 20, 1923 – February 6, 1999) was an American actor and television director. Beginning in the 1950s, he played many roles in film and on TV. He had a recurring role as Hank Pivnik on All in the Family and had guest roles in M*A*S*H, The Incredible Hulk, Charlie's Angels and The Love Boat. Dayton graduated from the school of journalism at New York University, before turning to acting. In addition to acting, Dayton also directed episodes of Occasional Wife, Here's Lucy, and the short-lived series Good Morning World. On February 6, 1999, Dayton died of emphysema in Los Angeles, California.

Danny Dayton graduated from the school of journalism at New York University.

summarization

### Instruction: Where did Danny Dayton graduated from? ### Context: Danny Dayton (born Daniel David Segall, November 20, 1923 – February 6, 1999) was an American actor and television director. Beginning in the 1950s, he played many roles in film and on TV. He had a recurring role as Hank Pivnik on All in the Family and had guest roles in M*A*S*H, The Incredible Hulk, Charlie's Angels and The Love Boat. Dayton graduated from the school of journalism at New York University, before turning to acting. In addition to acting, Dayton also directed episodes of Occasional Wife, Here's Lucy, and the short-lived series Good Morning World. On February 6, 1999, Dayton died of emphysema in Los Angeles, California. ### Answer: Danny Dayton graduated from the school of journalism at New York University.</s>

Should we all use Qubes OS for most daily task that involve the internet?

Qubes implements a Security by Isolation approach. The assumption is that there can be no perfect, bug-free desktop environment: such an environment counts millions of lines of code and billions of software/hardware interactions. One critical bug in any of these interactions may be enough for malicious software to take control of a machine.

I have been using Qubes OS for all my online activities for the last few years. Qubes' disposable VM concept fit nicely in this use case.

summarization

### Instruction: Should we all use Qubes OS for most daily task that involve the internet? ### Context: Qubes implements a Security by Isolation approach. The assumption is that there can be no perfect, bug-free desktop environment: such an environment counts millions of lines of code and billions of software/hardware interactions. One critical bug in any of these interactions may be enough for malicious software to take control of a machine. ### Answer: I have been using Qubes OS for all my online activities for the last few years. Qubes' disposable VM concept fit nicely in this use case.</s>

What is The Dark Side of the Moon?

The Dark Side of the Moon is the eighth studio album by the English rock band Pink Floyd, released on 1 March 1973 by Harvest Records. Developed during live performances before recording began, it was conceived as a concept album that would focus on the pressures faced by the band during their arduous lifestyle, and also deal with the mental health problems of former band member Syd Barrett, who departed the group in 1968. New material was recorded in two sessions in 1972 and 1973 at EMI Studios (now Abbey Road Studios) in London.

The Dark Side of the Moon is Pink Floyd's 8th studio album. It is about the band's difficult lifestyle and touches on the mental health problems of former band member Syd Barrett.

summarization

### Instruction: What is The Dark Side of the Moon? ### Context: The Dark Side of the Moon is the eighth studio album by the English rock band Pink Floyd, released on 1 March 1973 by Harvest Records. Developed during live performances before recording began, it was conceived as a concept album that would focus on the pressures faced by the band during their arduous lifestyle, and also deal with the mental health problems of former band member Syd Barrett, who departed the group in 1968. New material was recorded in two sessions in 1972 and 1973 at EMI Studios (now Abbey Road Studios) in London. ### Answer: The Dark Side of the Moon is Pink Floyd's 8th studio album. It is about the band's difficult lifestyle and touches on the mental health problems of former band member Syd Barrett.</s>

According to the text what are the most common symptoms of COVID-19?

The symptoms of COVID-19 are variable depending on the type of variant contracted, ranging from mild symptoms to a potentially fatal illness. Common symptoms include coughing, fever, loss of smell (anosmia) and taste (ageusia), with less common ones including headaches, nasal congestion and runny nose, muscle pain, sore throat, diarrhea, eye irritation, and toes swelling or turning purple, and in moderate to severe cases, breathing difficulties. People with the COVID-19 infection may have different symptoms, and their symptoms may change over time. Three common clusters of symptoms have been identified: one respiratory symptom cluster with cough, sputum, shortness of breath, and fever; a musculoskeletal symptom cluster with muscle and joint pain, headache, and fatigue; and a cluster of digestive symptoms with abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. In people without prior ear, nose, or throat disorders, loss of taste combined with loss of smell is associated with COVID-19 and is reported in as many as 88% of symptomatic cases.

coughing, fever, loss of smell (anosmia), loss of taste (ageusia)

summarization

### Instruction: According to the text what are the most common symptoms of COVID-19? ### Context: The symptoms of COVID-19 are variable depending on the type of variant contracted, ranging from mild symptoms to a potentially fatal illness. Common symptoms include coughing, fever, loss of smell (anosmia) and taste (ageusia), with less common ones including headaches, nasal congestion and runny nose, muscle pain, sore throat, diarrhea, eye irritation, and toes swelling or turning purple, and in moderate to severe cases, breathing difficulties. People with the COVID-19 infection may have different symptoms, and their symptoms may change over time. Three common clusters of symptoms have been identified: one respiratory symptom cluster with cough, sputum, shortness of breath, and fever; a musculoskeletal symptom cluster with muscle and joint pain, headache, and fatigue; and a cluster of digestive symptoms with abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. In people without prior ear, nose, or throat disorders, loss of taste combined with loss of smell is associated with COVID-19 and is reported in as many as 88% of symptomatic cases. ### Answer: coughing, fever, loss of smell (anosmia), loss of taste (ageusia)</s>

What is a laser and who created it?

A laser is a device that emits light through a process of optical amplification based on the stimulated emission of electromagnetic radiation. The word laser is an anacronym that originated as an acronym for light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation The first laser was built in 1960 by Theodore Maiman at Hughes Research Laboratories, based on theoretical work by Charles H. Townes and Arthur Leonard Schawlow. A laser differs from other sources of light in that it emits light that is coherent. Spatial coherence allows a laser to be focused to a tight spot, enabling applications such as laser cutting and lithography. Spatial coherence also allows a laser beam to stay narrow over great distances (collimation), enabling applications such as laser pointers and lidar (light detection and ranging). Lasers can also have high temporal coherence, which allows them to emit light with a very narrow spectrum. Alternatively, temporal coherence can be used to produce ultrashort pulses of light with a broad spectrum but durations as short as a femtosecond. Lasers are used in optical disc drives, laser printers, barcode scanners, DNA sequencing instruments, fiber-optic, and free-space optical communication, semiconducting chip manufacturing (photolithography), laser surgery and skin treatments, cutting and welding materials, military and law enforcement devices for marking targets and measuring range and speed, and in laser lighting displays for entertainment. Semiconductor lasers in the blue to near-UV have also been used in place of light-emitting diodes (LEDs) to excite fluorescence as a white light source. This permits a much smaller emitting area due to the much greater radiance of a laser and avoids the droop suffered by LEDs; such devices are already used in some car headlamps.

A laser is a device that emits light from an electromagnetic radiation source. The first laser was built in 1960 by Theodore Maiman at Hughes Research Laboratories, based on theoretical work by Charles H. Townes and Arthur Leonard Schawlow. Lasers emit a certain type of light. Light that is coherent. Coherence can be measured spatially or temporally. Spacial coherence allows laser beams to stay narrow over great distances. Temporal coherence can be used to produce ultrashort pules of light. Some example of the uses of lasers are optical disc drives, laser printers, barcode scanners, fiber optics and photolithography

summarization

### Instruction: What is a laser and who created it? ### Context: A laser is a device that emits light through a process of optical amplification based on the stimulated emission of electromagnetic radiation. The word laser is an anacronym that originated as an acronym for light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation The first laser was built in 1960 by Theodore Maiman at Hughes Research Laboratories, based on theoretical work by Charles H. Townes and Arthur Leonard Schawlow. A laser differs from other sources of light in that it emits light that is coherent. Spatial coherence allows a laser to be focused to a tight spot, enabling applications such as laser cutting and lithography. Spatial coherence also allows a laser beam to stay narrow over great distances (collimation), enabling applications such as laser pointers and lidar (light detection and ranging). Lasers can also have high temporal coherence, which allows them to emit light with a very narrow spectrum. Alternatively, temporal coherence can be used to produce ultrashort pulses of light with a broad spectrum but durations as short as a femtosecond. Lasers are used in optical disc drives, laser printers, barcode scanners, DNA sequencing instruments, fiber-optic, and free-space optical communication, semiconducting chip manufacturing (photolithography), laser surgery and skin treatments, cutting and welding materials, military and law enforcement devices for marking targets and measuring range and speed, and in laser lighting displays for entertainment. Semiconductor lasers in the blue to near-UV have also been used in place of light-emitting diodes (LEDs) to excite fluorescence as a white light source. This permits a much smaller emitting area due to the much greater radiance of a laser and avoids the droop suffered by LEDs; such devices are already used in some car headlamps. ### Answer: A laser is a device that emits light from an electromagnetic radiation source. The first laser was built in 1960 by Theodore Maiman at Hughes Research Laboratories, based on theoretical work by Charles H. Townes and Arthur Leonard Schawlow. Lasers emit a certain type of light. Light that is coherent. Coherence can be measured spatially or temporally. Spacial coherence allows laser beams to stay narrow over great distances. Temporal coherence can be used to produce ultrashort pules of light. Some example of the uses of lasers are optical disc drives, laser printers, barcode scanners, fiber optics and photolithography</s>

In which regions has Starbucks come under scrutiny?

Starbucks, an American coffee company and coffeehouse chain, has been the subject of multiple controversies. Public and employee criticism against the company has come from around the world, including a wide range issues from tax avoidance in Europe, anti-competitive practices in the United States, human rights issues in multiple countries, and labor issues involving union busting, questions about pay equity, and ethics in partnerships in Africa.

Criticism of Starbucks has been noted in Europe, the United States, as well as Africa.

summarization

### Instruction: In which regions has Starbucks come under scrutiny? ### Context: Starbucks, an American coffee company and coffeehouse chain, has been the subject of multiple controversies. Public and employee criticism against the company has come from around the world, including a wide range issues from tax avoidance in Europe, anti-competitive practices in the United States, human rights issues in multiple countries, and labor issues involving union busting, questions about pay equity, and ethics in partnerships in Africa. ### Answer: Criticism of Starbucks has been noted in Europe, the United States, as well as Africa.</s>

Based on the paragraph given, list down some important points regarding Bhopal city

Bhopal (/boʊˈpɑːl/; Hindi: [bʱoːpaːl] ( listen)) is the capital city of the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh and the administrative headquarters of both Bhopal district and Bhopal division. It is known as the City of Lakes due to its various natural and artificial lakes. It is also one of the greenest cities in India. It is the 16th largest city in India and 131st in the world. After the formation of Madhya Pradesh, Bhopal was part of the Sehore district. It was bifurcated in 1972 and a new district, Bhopal, was formed. Flourishing around 1707, the city was the capital of the former Bhopal State, a princely state of the British ruled by the Nawabs of Bhopal. Numerous heritage structures from this period include the Taj-ul-Masajid and Taj Mahal palace. In 1984, the city was struck by the Bhopal disaster, one of the worst industrial disasters in history

1. Bhopal is the capital city of Madhya Pradesh in India, and the administrative headquarters of both Bhopal district and Bhopal division. 2. Bhopal is also known as “The city of lakes” . It is also the 16th largest city in India and 131st in the world. 3. Bhopal was formed as a new district from existing Sehore district in 1972. 4. In 1707 Bhopal was the capital of the former Bhopal State, which British ruled by the Nawabs of Bhopal. 5. Bhopal has Numerous heritage structures from 1700’s include the Taj-ul-Masjid and Taj Mahal palace. 6. One of the worst industrial disasters in history happened in 1984 in Bhopal , also known as Bhopal Disaster.

summarization

### Instruction: Based on the paragraph given, list down some important points regarding Bhopal city ### Context: Bhopal (/boʊˈpɑːl/; Hindi: [bʱoːpaːl] ( listen)) is the capital city of the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh and the administrative headquarters of both Bhopal district and Bhopal division. It is known as the City of Lakes due to its various natural and artificial lakes. It is also one of the greenest cities in India. It is the 16th largest city in India and 131st in the world. After the formation of Madhya Pradesh, Bhopal was part of the Sehore district. It was bifurcated in 1972 and a new district, Bhopal, was formed. Flourishing around 1707, the city was the capital of the former Bhopal State, a princely state of the British ruled by the Nawabs of Bhopal. Numerous heritage structures from this period include the Taj-ul-Masajid and Taj Mahal palace. In 1984, the city was struck by the Bhopal disaster, one of the worst industrial disasters in history ### Answer: 1. Bhopal is the capital city of Madhya Pradesh in India, and the administrative headquarters of both Bhopal district and Bhopal division. 2. Bhopal is also known as “The city of lakes” . It is also the 16th largest city in India and 131st in the world. 3. Bhopal was formed as a new district from existing Sehore district in 1972. 4. In 1707 Bhopal was the capital of the former Bhopal State, which British ruled by the Nawabs of Bhopal. 5. Bhopal has Numerous heritage structures from 1700’s include the Taj-ul-Masjid and Taj Mahal palace. 6. One of the worst industrial disasters in history happened in 1984 in Bhopal , also known as Bhopal Disaster.</s>

Is the killers a band

The Killers are an American rock band formed in Las Vegas in 2001 by Brandon Flowers (lead vocals, keyboards, bass) and Dave Keuning (lead guitar, backing vocals). After going through a number of short-term bass players and drummers in their early days, both Mark Stoermer (bass, rhythm guitar, backing vocals) and Ronnie Vannucci Jr. (drums, percussion) joined the band in 2002. The band's name is derived from a logo on the bass drum of a fictitious band portrayed in the music video for the New Order song "Crystal".

The Killers are an American rock band formed in Las Vegas in 2001 by Brandon Flowers (lead vocals, keyboards, bass) and Dave Keuning (lead guitar, backing vocals). After going through a number of short-term bass players and drummers in their early days, both Mark Stoermer (bass, rhythm guitar, backing vocals) and Ronnie Vannucci Jr. (drums, percussion) joined the band in 2002. The band's name is derived from a logo on the bass drum of a fictitious band portrayed in the music video for the New Order song Crystal.

summarization

### Instruction: Is the killers a band ### Context: The Killers are an American rock band formed in Las Vegas in 2001 by Brandon Flowers (lead vocals, keyboards, bass) and Dave Keuning (lead guitar, backing vocals). After going through a number of short-term bass players and drummers in their early days, both Mark Stoermer (bass, rhythm guitar, backing vocals) and Ronnie Vannucci Jr. (drums, percussion) joined the band in 2002. The band's name is derived from a logo on the bass drum of a fictitious band portrayed in the music video for the New Order song "Crystal". ### Answer: The Killers are an American rock band formed in Las Vegas in 2001 by Brandon Flowers (lead vocals, keyboards, bass) and Dave Keuning (lead guitar, backing vocals). After going through a number of short-term bass players and drummers in their early days, both Mark Stoermer (bass, rhythm guitar, backing vocals) and Ronnie Vannucci Jr. (drums, percussion) joined the band in 2002. The band's name is derived from a logo on the bass drum of a fictitious band portrayed in the music video for the New Order song Crystal.</s>

Please give me a short bulleted list of the key events that happened in Kobe Bryant’s early life in time order, from earliest to the latest.

Bryant was born on August 23, 1978, in Philadelphia, the youngest of three children and the only son of Pamela Cox Bryant and former NBA player Joe Bryant. He was also the maternal nephew of NBA player John "Chubby" Cox. His parents named him after the famous beef of Kobe, Japan, which they saw on a restaurant menu. His middle name, Bean, was derived from his father's nickname "Jellybean". Bryant's family was Catholic and he was brought up with this faith. Bryant started playing basketball when he was three, and the Lakers were his favorite team when he was growing up. When Bryant was six, his father retired from the NBA and moved his family to Rieti in Italy to continue playing professional basketball.After two years, they moved first to Reggio Calabria, then to Pistoia and Reggio Emilia. Kobe became accustomed to his new lifestyle and learned to speak fluent Italian. He was especially fond of Reggio Emilia, which he considered a loving place and where some of his best childhood memories were made. Bryant began to play basketball seriously while living in Reggio Emilia. Bryant's grandfather would mail him videos of NBA games for Bryant to study. Another source of inspiration was animated European films about sports, from which he learned more about basketball. From 1987 to 1989, his father played for Olimpia Basket Pistoia where he paired with former Detroit Pistons Leon Douglas. Kobe would work at the games as a ball and mop boy and would practice shooting at halftime, with Douglas sharing, "At every one of our games at halftime, it was the Kobe show. He'd get out there and get his shot up. We'd come out of the locker room at halftime and have to chase him off the court". Bryant also learned to play soccer, and his favorite soccer team was A.C. Milan. During summers, Bryant would come back to the United States to play in a basketball summer league. When Bryant was 13, he and his family moved back to Philadelphia, where he enrolled in eighth grade at Bala Cynwyd Middle School.

- In August 1978, Kobe Bryant was born in Philadelphia. The name Kobe comes from the famous Japanese beef, Kobe. - When Kobe was three years old, he started playing basketball. - When Kobe was six, he moved to Italy with his family as his father started to play professional basketball there. - Two years later, Kobe moved to Reggio Calabria, and Pistoia and Reggio Emilia later. - Kobe returned to the US when he was 13 with his family. He studied in Bala Cynwyd Middle School.

summarization

### Instruction: Please give me a short bulleted list of the key events that happened in Kobe Bryant’s early life in time order, from earliest to the latest. ### Context: Bryant was born on August 23, 1978, in Philadelphia, the youngest of three children and the only son of Pamela Cox Bryant and former NBA player Joe Bryant. He was also the maternal nephew of NBA player John "Chubby" Cox. His parents named him after the famous beef of Kobe, Japan, which they saw on a restaurant menu. His middle name, Bean, was derived from his father's nickname "Jellybean". Bryant's family was Catholic and he was brought up with this faith. Bryant started playing basketball when he was three, and the Lakers were his favorite team when he was growing up. When Bryant was six, his father retired from the NBA and moved his family to Rieti in Italy to continue playing professional basketball.After two years, they moved first to Reggio Calabria, then to Pistoia and Reggio Emilia. Kobe became accustomed to his new lifestyle and learned to speak fluent Italian. He was especially fond of Reggio Emilia, which he considered a loving place and where some of his best childhood memories were made. Bryant began to play basketball seriously while living in Reggio Emilia. Bryant's grandfather would mail him videos of NBA games for Bryant to study. Another source of inspiration was animated European films about sports, from which he learned more about basketball. From 1987 to 1989, his father played for Olimpia Basket Pistoia where he paired with former Detroit Pistons Leon Douglas. Kobe would work at the games as a ball and mop boy and would practice shooting at halftime, with Douglas sharing, "At every one of our games at halftime, it was the Kobe show. He'd get out there and get his shot up. We'd come out of the locker room at halftime and have to chase him off the court". Bryant also learned to play soccer, and his favorite soccer team was A.C. Milan. During summers, Bryant would come back to the United States to play in a basketball summer league. When Bryant was 13, he and his family moved back to Philadelphia, where he enrolled in eighth grade at Bala Cynwyd Middle School. ### Answer: - In August 1978, Kobe Bryant was born in Philadelphia. The name Kobe comes from the famous Japanese beef, Kobe. - When Kobe was three years old, he started playing basketball. - When Kobe was six, he moved to Italy with his family as his father started to play professional basketball there. - Two years later, Kobe moved to Reggio Calabria, and Pistoia and Reggio Emilia later. - Kobe returned to the US when he was 13 with his family. He studied in Bala Cynwyd Middle School.</s>

Why are pulse tools used in product assembly over impact wrenches?

Impact wrenches are widely used in many industries, such as automotive repair, heavy equipment maintenance, product assembly, major construction projects, and any other instance where a high torque output is needed. For product assembly, a pulse tool is commonly used, as it features a reactionless tightening while reducing the noise levels the regular impacts suffer from. Pulse tools use oil as a medium to transfer the kinetic energy from the hammer into the anvil. This gives a smoother impulse, a slightly lower torque to weight ratio and a possibility to design a shut off mechanism that shuts the tool down when achieving the correct torque. Pulse tools are not referred to as "impact wrenches" as the performance and technology are not the same.

Pulse tools are used for product assembly because they have reactionless tightening and are able to reduce noise levels

summarization

### Instruction: Why are pulse tools used in product assembly over impact wrenches? ### Context: Impact wrenches are widely used in many industries, such as automotive repair, heavy equipment maintenance, product assembly, major construction projects, and any other instance where a high torque output is needed. For product assembly, a pulse tool is commonly used, as it features a reactionless tightening while reducing the noise levels the regular impacts suffer from. Pulse tools use oil as a medium to transfer the kinetic energy from the hammer into the anvil. This gives a smoother impulse, a slightly lower torque to weight ratio and a possibility to design a shut off mechanism that shuts the tool down when achieving the correct torque. Pulse tools are not referred to as "impact wrenches" as the performance and technology are not the same. ### Answer: Pulse tools are used for product assembly because they have reactionless tightening and are able to reduce noise levels</s>

Who was Jacques Malouin

Jacques Malouin (February 1, 1826 – November 30, 1901) was a lawyer and political figure in Quebec. He represented Quebec-Centre in the House of Commons of Canada from 1877 to 1882 as an Independent member. He was born in Quebec City, Lower Canada, the son of François-Xavier Rinfret dit Malouin and Marguerite Falardeau. Malouin was admitted to the bar in 1847. He was married twice: to Marie-Angélique Suzor in 1852 and then to Alvine Morriset. Malouin was first elected to the House of Commons in an 1877 by-election held after Joseph-Édouard Cauchon was named Lieutenant-Governor of Manitoba. He was elected again in 1878 but was defeated by Joseph-Guillaume Bossé when he ran for reelection in 1882. Malouin was a member of the council of the Quebec bar and served as bâtonnier in 1869 and 1877. He died in Quebec City at the age of 75. His son Arthur Cyrille Albert Malouin also represented Quebec-Centre in the House of Commons and later served in the Supreme Court of Canada.

Jacques Malouin (February 1, 1826 – November 30, 1901) was a lawyer and political figure in Quebec. He represented Quebec-Centre in the House of Commons of Canada from 1877 to 1882 as an Independent member.

summarization

### Instruction: Who was Jacques Malouin ### Context: Jacques Malouin (February 1, 1826 – November 30, 1901) was a lawyer and political figure in Quebec. He represented Quebec-Centre in the House of Commons of Canada from 1877 to 1882 as an Independent member. He was born in Quebec City, Lower Canada, the son of François-Xavier Rinfret dit Malouin and Marguerite Falardeau. Malouin was admitted to the bar in 1847. He was married twice: to Marie-Angélique Suzor in 1852 and then to Alvine Morriset. Malouin was first elected to the House of Commons in an 1877 by-election held after Joseph-Édouard Cauchon was named Lieutenant-Governor of Manitoba. He was elected again in 1878 but was defeated by Joseph-Guillaume Bossé when he ran for reelection in 1882. Malouin was a member of the council of the Quebec bar and served as bâtonnier in 1869 and 1877. He died in Quebec City at the age of 75. His son Arthur Cyrille Albert Malouin also represented Quebec-Centre in the House of Commons and later served in the Supreme Court of Canada. ### Answer: Jacques Malouin (February 1, 1826 – November 30, 1901) was a lawyer and political figure in Quebec. He represented Quebec-Centre in the House of Commons of Canada from 1877 to 1882 as an Independent member.</s>

What is Anandapuram mandal

Anandapuram mandal is one of the 46 mandals in Visakhapatnam district of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It is under the administration of Visakhapatnam revenue division and the headquarters are located at Anandapuram. Anandapuram mandal is bounded by Bheemunipatnam mandal to the east, Chinagadila to the south, Padmanabham to the north and Kothavalasa to the west.

Anandapuram mandal is one of the 46 mandals in Visakhapatnam district of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It is under the administration of Visakhapatnam revenue division and the headquarters are located at Anandapuram.

summarization

### Instruction: What is Anandapuram mandal ### Context: Anandapuram mandal is one of the 46 mandals in Visakhapatnam district of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It is under the administration of Visakhapatnam revenue division and the headquarters are located at Anandapuram. Anandapuram mandal is bounded by Bheemunipatnam mandal to the east, Chinagadila to the south, Padmanabham to the north and Kothavalasa to the west. ### Answer: Anandapuram mandal is one of the 46 mandals in Visakhapatnam district of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It is under the administration of Visakhapatnam revenue division and the headquarters are located at Anandapuram.</s>

What is the difference between a clan and a tribe

In different cultures and situations, a clan usually has different meaning than other kin-based groups, such as tribes and bands. Often, the distinguishing factor is that a clan is a smaller, integral part of a larger society such as a tribe, chiefdom, or a state. In some societies, clans may have an official leader such as a chief, matriarch or patriarch; or such leadership role is performed by elders. In others, leadership positions may have to be achieved. The term tribe is used in many different contexts to refer to a category of human social group. The predominant worldwide usage of the term in English is in the discipline of anthropology. Its definition is contested, in part due to conflicting theoretical understandings of social and kinship structures, and also reflecting the problematic application of this concept to extremely diverse human societies. The concept is often contrasted by anthropologists with other social and kinship groups, being hierarchically larger than a lineage or clan, but smaller than a chiefdom, nation or state. These terms are equally disputed. In some cases tribes have legal recognition and some degree of political autonomy from national or federal government, but this legalistic usage of the term may conflict with anthropological definitions. In the United States, Native American tribes are legally considered to have "domestic dependent nation" status within the territorial United States, with a government-to-government relationship with the federal government.

In different cultures and situations, a clan usually has different meaning than other kin-based groups, such as tribes and bands. Often, the distinguishing factor is that a clan is a smaller, integral part of a larger society such as a tribe, chiefdom, or a state. In some societies, clans may have an official leader such as a chief, matriarch or patriarch; or such leadership role is performed by elders. In others, leadership positions may have to be achieved. The term tribe is used in many different contexts to refer to a category of human social group. The predominant worldwide usage of the term in English is in the discipline of anthropology. Its definition is contested, in part due to conflicting theoretical understandings of social and kinship structures, and also reflecting the problematic application of this concept to extremely diverse human societies. The concept is often contrasted by anthropologists with other social and kinship groups, being hierarchically larger than a lineage or clan, but smaller than a chiefdom, nation or state. These terms are equally disputed. In some cases tribes have legal recognition and some degree of political autonomy from national or federal government, but this legalistic usage of the term may conflict with anthropological definitions. In the United States, Native American tribes are legally considered to have "domestic dependent nation" status within the territorial United States, with a government-to-government relationship with the federal government.

summarization

### Instruction: What is the difference between a clan and a tribe ### Context: In different cultures and situations, a clan usually has different meaning than other kin-based groups, such as tribes and bands. Often, the distinguishing factor is that a clan is a smaller, integral part of a larger society such as a tribe, chiefdom, or a state. In some societies, clans may have an official leader such as a chief, matriarch or patriarch; or such leadership role is performed by elders. In others, leadership positions may have to be achieved. The term tribe is used in many different contexts to refer to a category of human social group. The predominant worldwide usage of the term in English is in the discipline of anthropology. Its definition is contested, in part due to conflicting theoretical understandings of social and kinship structures, and also reflecting the problematic application of this concept to extremely diverse human societies. The concept is often contrasted by anthropologists with other social and kinship groups, being hierarchically larger than a lineage or clan, but smaller than a chiefdom, nation or state. These terms are equally disputed. In some cases tribes have legal recognition and some degree of political autonomy from national or federal government, but this legalistic usage of the term may conflict with anthropological definitions. In the United States, Native American tribes are legally considered to have "domestic dependent nation" status within the territorial United States, with a government-to-government relationship with the federal government. ### Answer: In different cultures and situations, a clan usually has different meaning than other kin-based groups, such as tribes and bands. Often, the distinguishing factor is that a clan is a smaller, integral part of a larger society such as a tribe, chiefdom, or a state. In some societies, clans may have an official leader such as a chief, matriarch or patriarch; or such leadership role is performed by elders. In others, leadership positions may have to be achieved. The term tribe is used in many different contexts to refer to a category of human social group. The predominant worldwide usage of the term in English is in the discipline of anthropology. Its definition is contested, in part due to conflicting theoretical understandings of social and kinship structures, and also reflecting the problematic application of this concept to extremely diverse human societies. The concept is often contrasted by anthropologists with other social and kinship groups, being hierarchically larger than a lineage or clan, but smaller than a chiefdom, nation or state. These terms are equally disputed. In some cases tribes have legal recognition and some degree of political autonomy from national or federal government, but this legalistic usage of the term may conflict with anthropological definitions. In the United States, Native American tribes are legally considered to have "domestic dependent nation" status within the territorial United States, with a government-to-government relationship with the federal government.</s>

How many variants of the PrintNightmare existed?

PrintNightmare was a critical security vulnerability affecting the Microsoft Windows operating system. The vulnerability occurred within the print spooler service. There were two variants, one permitting remote code execution (CVE-2021-34527), and the other leading to privilege escalation (CVE-2021-1675). A third vulnerability (CVE-2021-34481) was announced July 15, 2021, and upgraded to remote code execution by Microsoft in August. On July 6, 2021, Microsoft started releasing out-of-band (unscheduled) patches attempting to address the vulnerability. Due to its severity, Microsoft released patches for Windows 7 and Windows Server 2012, despite being out of their mainstream support period. The patches resulted in some printers ceasing to function. Researchers have noted that the vulnerability has not been fully addressed by the patches. After the patch is applied, only administrators account on Windows print server, will be able to install printer drivers, as part of the vulnerability related to the ability of non-administrators to install printer drivers on the system, such as shared printers on system without sharing password protection. The organization which discovered the vulnerability, Sangfor, published a proof of concept in a public GitHub repository. Apparently published in error, or as a result of a miscommunication between the researchers and Microsoft, the proof of concept was deleted shortly after. However, several copies have since appeared online.

There are two variants of the PrintNightmare, one permitting remote code execution and the other one leading to privilege escalation.

summarization

### Instruction: How many variants of the PrintNightmare existed? ### Context: PrintNightmare was a critical security vulnerability affecting the Microsoft Windows operating system. The vulnerability occurred within the print spooler service. There were two variants, one permitting remote code execution (CVE-2021-34527), and the other leading to privilege escalation (CVE-2021-1675). A third vulnerability (CVE-2021-34481) was announced July 15, 2021, and upgraded to remote code execution by Microsoft in August. On July 6, 2021, Microsoft started releasing out-of-band (unscheduled) patches attempting to address the vulnerability. Due to its severity, Microsoft released patches for Windows 7 and Windows Server 2012, despite being out of their mainstream support period. The patches resulted in some printers ceasing to function. Researchers have noted that the vulnerability has not been fully addressed by the patches. After the patch is applied, only administrators account on Windows print server, will be able to install printer drivers, as part of the vulnerability related to the ability of non-administrators to install printer drivers on the system, such as shared printers on system without sharing password protection. The organization which discovered the vulnerability, Sangfor, published a proof of concept in a public GitHub repository. Apparently published in error, or as a result of a miscommunication between the researchers and Microsoft, the proof of concept was deleted shortly after. However, several copies have since appeared online. ### Answer: There are two variants of the PrintNightmare, one permitting remote code execution and the other one leading to privilege escalation.</s>

what are the rules of cricket ?

Cricket is a bat-and-ball game played between two teams of eleven players on a field at the centre of which is a 22-yard (20-metre) pitch with a wicket at each end, each comprising two bails balanced on three stumps. The batting side scores runs by striking the ball bowled at one of the wickets with the bat and then running between the wickets, while the bowling and fielding side tries to prevent this (by preventing the ball from leaving the field, and getting the ball to either wicket) and dismiss each batter (so they are "out"). Means of dismissal include being bowled, when the ball hits the stumps and dislodges the bails, and by the fielding side either catching the ball after it is hit by the bat, but before it hits the ground, or hitting a wicket with the ball before a batter can cross the crease in front of the wicket. When ten batters have been dismissed, the innings ends and the teams swap roles. The game is adjudicated by two umpires, aided by a third umpire and match referee in international matches. They communicate with two off-field scorers who record the match's statistical information. Forms of cricket range from Twenty20, with each team batting for a single innings of 20 overs (each "over" being a set of 6 fair opportunities for the batting team to score) and the game generally lasting three hours, to Test matches played over five days. Traditionally cricketers play in all-white kit, but in limited overs cricket they wear club or team colours. In addition to the basic kit, some players wear protective gear to prevent injury caused by the ball, which is a hard, solid spheroid made of compressed leather with a slightly raised sewn seam enclosing a cork core layered with tightly wound string. The earliest reference to cricket is in South East England in the mid-16th century. It spread globally with the expansion of the British Empire, with the first international matches in the second half of the 19th century. The game's governing body is the International Cricket Council (ICC), which has over 100 members, twelve of which are full members who play Test matches. The game's rules, the Laws of Cricket, are maintained by Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) in London. The sport is followed primarily in South Asia, Australasia, the United Kingdom, Southern Africa and the West Indies. Women's cricket, which is organised and played separately, has also achieved international standard. The most successful side playing international cricket is Australia, which has won seven One Day International trophies, including five World Cups, more than any other country and has been the top-rated Test side more than any other country.

Cricket is a bat-and-ball game played between two teams of eleven players on a field at the centre of which is a 22-yard (20-metre) pitch with a wicket at each end, each comprising two bails balanced on three stumps.Forms of cricket range from Twenty20, with each team batting for a single innings of 20 overs (each "over" being a set of 6 fair opportunities for the batting team to score) and the game generally lasting three hours, to Test matches played over five days.The batting side scores runs by striking the ball bowled at one of the wickets with the bat and then running between the wickets, while the bowling and fielding side tries to prevent this (by preventing the ball from leaving the field, and getting the ball to either wicket) and dismiss each batter (so they are "out").

summarization

### Instruction: what are the rules of cricket ? ### Context: Cricket is a bat-and-ball game played between two teams of eleven players on a field at the centre of which is a 22-yard (20-metre) pitch with a wicket at each end, each comprising two bails balanced on three stumps. The batting side scores runs by striking the ball bowled at one of the wickets with the bat and then running between the wickets, while the bowling and fielding side tries to prevent this (by preventing the ball from leaving the field, and getting the ball to either wicket) and dismiss each batter (so they are "out"). Means of dismissal include being bowled, when the ball hits the stumps and dislodges the bails, and by the fielding side either catching the ball after it is hit by the bat, but before it hits the ground, or hitting a wicket with the ball before a batter can cross the crease in front of the wicket. When ten batters have been dismissed, the innings ends and the teams swap roles. The game is adjudicated by two umpires, aided by a third umpire and match referee in international matches. They communicate with two off-field scorers who record the match's statistical information. Forms of cricket range from Twenty20, with each team batting for a single innings of 20 overs (each "over" being a set of 6 fair opportunities for the batting team to score) and the game generally lasting three hours, to Test matches played over five days. Traditionally cricketers play in all-white kit, but in limited overs cricket they wear club or team colours. In addition to the basic kit, some players wear protective gear to prevent injury caused by the ball, which is a hard, solid spheroid made of compressed leather with a slightly raised sewn seam enclosing a cork core layered with tightly wound string. The earliest reference to cricket is in South East England in the mid-16th century. It spread globally with the expansion of the British Empire, with the first international matches in the second half of the 19th century. The game's governing body is the International Cricket Council (ICC), which has over 100 members, twelve of which are full members who play Test matches. The game's rules, the Laws of Cricket, are maintained by Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) in London. The sport is followed primarily in South Asia, Australasia, the United Kingdom, Southern Africa and the West Indies. Women's cricket, which is organised and played separately, has also achieved international standard. The most successful side playing international cricket is Australia, which has won seven One Day International trophies, including five World Cups, more than any other country and has been the top-rated Test side more than any other country. ### Answer: Cricket is a bat-and-ball game played between two teams of eleven players on a field at the centre of which is a 22-yard (20-metre) pitch with a wicket at each end, each comprising two bails balanced on three stumps.Forms of cricket range from Twenty20, with each team batting for a single innings of 20 overs (each "over" being a set of 6 fair opportunities for the batting team to score) and the game generally lasting three hours, to Test matches played over five days.The batting side scores runs by striking the ball bowled at one of the wickets with the bat and then running between the wickets, while the bowling and fielding side tries to prevent this (by preventing the ball from leaving the field, and getting the ball to either wicket) and dismiss each batter (so they are "out").</s>

What's the area of Fuldera village?

Fuldera is a village in the Val Müstair municipality in the district of Inn in the Swiss canton of Graubünden. In 2009 Fuldera merged with Lü, Müstair, Santa Maria Val Müstair, Tschierv and Valchava to form the municipality of Val Müstair. History Fuldera is first mentioned in 1322 as Faldiera. Geography Fuldera village Fuldera had an area, as of 2006, of 13.2 km2 (5.1 sq mi). Of this area, 24.9% is used for agricultural purposes, while 37.2% is forested. Of the rest of the land, 1.4% is settled (buildings or roads) and the remainder (36.4%) is non-productive (rivers, glaciers or mountains). The village is located in the Val Müstair sub-district (now Val Müstair municipality) of the Inn district. It is located on the right side of the Rombach. It consists of the larger Fuldera-Dora and the smaller Fuldera-Daint.

The Fuldera village encompasses an area of 13.2 km2 or 5.1 sq mi.

summarization

### Instruction: What's the area of Fuldera village? ### Context: Fuldera is a village in the Val Müstair municipality in the district of Inn in the Swiss canton of Graubünden. In 2009 Fuldera merged with Lü, Müstair, Santa Maria Val Müstair, Tschierv and Valchava to form the municipality of Val Müstair. History Fuldera is first mentioned in 1322 as Faldiera. Geography Fuldera village Fuldera had an area, as of 2006, of 13.2 km2 (5.1 sq mi). Of this area, 24.9% is used for agricultural purposes, while 37.2% is forested. Of the rest of the land, 1.4% is settled (buildings or roads) and the remainder (36.4%) is non-productive (rivers, glaciers or mountains). The village is located in the Val Müstair sub-district (now Val Müstair municipality) of the Inn district. It is located on the right side of the Rombach. It consists of the larger Fuldera-Dora and the smaller Fuldera-Daint. ### Answer: The Fuldera village encompasses an area of 13.2 km2 or 5.1 sq mi.</s>

With given text as a reference, Please jot down some details about Central Michigan University

Central Michigan University (CMU) is a public research university in Mount Pleasant, Michigan. Established in 1892 as the Central Michigan Normal School and Business Institute, the private normal school became a state institution and renamed Central State Normal School in 1895 after the Michigan State Board of Education took over governance of the school. The institution came into its own as a university and gained its current name Central Michigan University in 1959 under the university's 6th president Judson W. Foust.

1. Located in Mount Pleasant, Michigan, Central Michigan University (CMU) is a public research university. 2. The private normal school, which had been founded in 1892 as the Central Michigan Normal School and Business Institute, changed its name to Central State Normal School in 1895 after the Michigan State Board of Education assumed control of the institution's management. 3. Under the leadership of Judson W. Foust, the university's sixth president, the institution began to take shape as a university and adopted its present name in 1959.

summarization

### Instruction: With given text as a reference, Please jot down some details about Central Michigan University ### Context: Central Michigan University (CMU) is a public research university in Mount Pleasant, Michigan. Established in 1892 as the Central Michigan Normal School and Business Institute, the private normal school became a state institution and renamed Central State Normal School in 1895 after the Michigan State Board of Education took over governance of the school. The institution came into its own as a university and gained its current name Central Michigan University in 1959 under the university's 6th president Judson W. Foust. ### Answer: 1. Located in Mount Pleasant, Michigan, Central Michigan University (CMU) is a public research university. 2. The private normal school, which had been founded in 1892 as the Central Michigan Normal School and Business Institute, changed its name to Central State Normal School in 1895 after the Michigan State Board of Education assumed control of the institution's management. 3. Under the leadership of Judson W. Foust, the university's sixth president, the institution began to take shape as a university and adopted its present name in 1959.</s>

Please give me a short summary of the critical response received by Season 1 of the Apple TV Series "Ted Lasso"

Review aggregator Rotten Tomatoes reported an approval rating of 92% based on 74 reviews, with an average rating of 8.2/10. The website's critics consensus reads, "Warm and winsome, if not particularly hilarious, Ted Lasso fleshes out its promo premise with unrelenting optimism and a charming turn from Jason Sudeikis." Metacritic gave the first season a weighted average score of 71 out of 100 based on 21 reviews, indicating "generally favorable reviews". Kristen Baldwin of Entertainment Weekly gave the series an A− and wrote, "There's nothing groundbreaking about the way Ted Lasso's story beats play out, but the show—a mix of workplace antics, sentimental sports inspo, and soapy romance—is undeniably winning." Reviewing the series for Rolling Stone, Alan Sepinwall described the series as "extremely likable throughout, but it's more a hypothetical comedy than an actual one. There are long stretches where Juno Temple is the only actor even trying to sell what few jokes are in the scripts." and gave a rating of 3/5. Writing for The Guardian, Benjamin Lee gave it 2/5, describing it as "a show that isn't unwatchably bad but isn't really much of anything", and suggesting that some of its humor was "rooted in some questionable and uneasy stereotypes". As the season went on, critical appreciation for the show increased. After the eighth episode aired, Caroline Framke of Variety published a review with the headline "For Your Reconsideration: Ted Lasso". She went on to say, "Above all odds, Ted Lasso chipped away at my skepticism until there was none left—just like the character himself does to everyone he meets", adding, "At a time when just about everything feels catastrophic, there's something undeniably satisfying about spending some time with good people who are just trying to be the best they can, on and off the field." Keri Lumm of Paste said, after the airing of the penultimate episode, "Ted Lasso is the wholesome American hero we need", going on to say "... the landscape of television has felt kind of gloomy, so imagine my surprise when I turned on the TV to Ted Lasso and felt a swelling of a now unfamiliar emotion—hope." And after the finale aired, Lea Palmieri from Decider said: "Every step of the way, Ted Lasso proves to be comforting and entertaining and somehow both a distraction and a reminder that kindness is out there, not just on this fictional show, not just across the pond, but deep in the heart of America too."

Season 1 of Ted Lasso was rated 92% on Rotten Tomatoes (74 reviews) and 71/100 on Metacritic (21 reviews). Some of the positive reviews described the show as winsome, comforting, entertaining and hopeful. Some viewers enjoyed the good-hearted cheer and optimism the show embodied during the current times of despair and hopelessness. One critic rated the show 2/5 and described it to be " not unwatchably bad".

summarization

### Instruction: Please give me a short summary of the critical response received by Season 1 of the Apple TV Series "Ted Lasso" ### Context: Review aggregator Rotten Tomatoes reported an approval rating of 92% based on 74 reviews, with an average rating of 8.2/10. The website's critics consensus reads, "Warm and winsome, if not particularly hilarious, Ted Lasso fleshes out its promo premise with unrelenting optimism and a charming turn from Jason Sudeikis." Metacritic gave the first season a weighted average score of 71 out of 100 based on 21 reviews, indicating "generally favorable reviews". Kristen Baldwin of Entertainment Weekly gave the series an A− and wrote, "There's nothing groundbreaking about the way Ted Lasso's story beats play out, but the show—a mix of workplace antics, sentimental sports inspo, and soapy romance—is undeniably winning." Reviewing the series for Rolling Stone, Alan Sepinwall described the series as "extremely likable throughout, but it's more a hypothetical comedy than an actual one. There are long stretches where Juno Temple is the only actor even trying to sell what few jokes are in the scripts." and gave a rating of 3/5. Writing for The Guardian, Benjamin Lee gave it 2/5, describing it as "a show that isn't unwatchably bad but isn't really much of anything", and suggesting that some of its humor was "rooted in some questionable and uneasy stereotypes". As the season went on, critical appreciation for the show increased. After the eighth episode aired, Caroline Framke of Variety published a review with the headline "For Your Reconsideration: Ted Lasso". She went on to say, "Above all odds, Ted Lasso chipped away at my skepticism until there was none left—just like the character himself does to everyone he meets", adding, "At a time when just about everything feels catastrophic, there's something undeniably satisfying about spending some time with good people who are just trying to be the best they can, on and off the field." Keri Lumm of Paste said, after the airing of the penultimate episode, "Ted Lasso is the wholesome American hero we need", going on to say "... the landscape of television has felt kind of gloomy, so imagine my surprise when I turned on the TV to Ted Lasso and felt a swelling of a now unfamiliar emotion—hope." And after the finale aired, Lea Palmieri from Decider said: "Every step of the way, Ted Lasso proves to be comforting and entertaining and somehow both a distraction and a reminder that kindness is out there, not just on this fictional show, not just across the pond, but deep in the heart of America too." ### Answer: Season 1 of Ted Lasso was rated 92% on Rotten Tomatoes (74 reviews) and 71/100 on Metacritic (21 reviews). Some of the positive reviews described the show as winsome, comforting, entertaining and hopeful. Some viewers enjoyed the good-hearted cheer and optimism the show embodied during the current times of despair and hopelessness. One critic rated the show 2/5 and described it to be " not unwatchably bad".</s>

Summarize the battle of Pävankhind.

Battle of Pävankhind was a rearguard last stand that took place on 13 July 1660, at a mountain pass in the vicinity of fort Vishalgad, near the city of Kolhapur with the Maratha warrior Baji Prabhu Deshpande and Sambhu Singh Jadhav against Siddi Masud of the Bijapur Sultanate. The engagement ended with the destruction of the Maratha forces, and a tactical victory for the Bijapur Sultanate that failed to achieve a strategic victory.

In 1660, Shivaji Maharaj was trapped in the fort of Panhala, under siege and vastly outnumbered by an Adilshah army led by an Abyssinian General called Siddi Masud. Shivaji Maharaj planned to escape to the Maratha fort of Vishalgad. Two Maratha sardars under the Adilshahi General Siddi Jouhar, namely Suryarao Surve and Jaswantrao Dalvi had also encircled the fort of Vishalgad simultaneously. Shivaji Maharaj waited for months, planning and depleting the Adilshah's food source. Shivaji Maharaj, Baji Prabhu, and around 600 of their best troops, would dash through the Adilshahi force at night. A man named Shiva Kashid, who resembled Shivaji Maharaj in appearance, had volunteered to dress like the king and get captured. This bought some additional time due to the confusion over identity, before Siddi Masud realised the error and gave chase. Baji Prabhu Deshpande Statue in Panhala Fort Shivaji Maharaj made his escape on the dark night of 13 July, with his troops and the Adilshah army was in pursuit with an army of 10,000. It was clear that there was no way to shake off the enemy, and that the Marathas would not simultaneously prevail over both the Moghul garrison at Vishalgad and the chasing Adilshahi army. The only option was for a section of the Marathas to stay back and fight the larger Adilshahi forces in a rearguard action, while the rest of the Marathas would carry on to their destination. Shivaji Maharaj decided to split his forces. Baji Prabhu agreed to face the troops of Bijapur with 300 soldiers. Shivaji Maharaj told Baji Prabhu that he would hear cannons being fired 5 times from Vishalgad, signaling Shivaji Maharaj’s safety. The strategic position of Ghod Khind (Horse Pass) was chosen for the defence, as it was very narrow and only a few soldiers could pass at any one time.

summarization

### Instruction: Summarize the battle of Pävankhind. ### Context: Battle of Pävankhind was a rearguard last stand that took place on 13 July 1660, at a mountain pass in the vicinity of fort Vishalgad, near the city of Kolhapur with the Maratha warrior Baji Prabhu Deshpande and Sambhu Singh Jadhav against Siddi Masud of the Bijapur Sultanate. The engagement ended with the destruction of the Maratha forces, and a tactical victory for the Bijapur Sultanate that failed to achieve a strategic victory. ### Answer: In 1660, Shivaji Maharaj was trapped in the fort of Panhala, under siege and vastly outnumbered by an Adilshah army led by an Abyssinian General called Siddi Masud. Shivaji Maharaj planned to escape to the Maratha fort of Vishalgad. Two Maratha sardars under the Adilshahi General Siddi Jouhar, namely Suryarao Surve and Jaswantrao Dalvi had also encircled the fort of Vishalgad simultaneously. Shivaji Maharaj waited for months, planning and depleting the Adilshah's food source. Shivaji Maharaj, Baji Prabhu, and around 600 of their best troops, would dash through the Adilshahi force at night. A man named Shiva Kashid, who resembled Shivaji Maharaj in appearance, had volunteered to dress like the king and get captured. This bought some additional time due to the confusion over identity, before Siddi Masud realised the error and gave chase. Baji Prabhu Deshpande Statue in Panhala Fort Shivaji Maharaj made his escape on the dark night of 13 July, with his troops and the Adilshah army was in pursuit with an army of 10,000. It was clear that there was no way to shake off the enemy, and that the Marathas would not simultaneously prevail over both the Moghul garrison at Vishalgad and the chasing Adilshahi army. The only option was for a section of the Marathas to stay back and fight the larger Adilshahi forces in a rearguard action, while the rest of the Marathas would carry on to their destination. Shivaji Maharaj decided to split his forces. Baji Prabhu agreed to face the troops of Bijapur with 300 soldiers. Shivaji Maharaj told Baji Prabhu that he would hear cannons being fired 5 times from Vishalgad, signaling Shivaji Maharaj’s safety. The strategic position of Ghod Khind (Horse Pass) was chosen for the defence, as it was very narrow and only a few soldiers could pass at any one time.</s>

How does a pine cone work?

The female cone has two types of scale: the bract scales, and the seed scales (or ovuliferous scales), one subtended by each bract scale, derived from a highly modified branchlet. On the upper-side base of each seed scale are two ovules that develop into seeds after fertilization by pollen grains. The bract scales develop first, and are conspicuous at the time of pollination; the seed scales develop later to enclose and protect the seeds, with the bract scales often not growing further. The scales open temporarily to receive pollen, then close during fertilization and maturation, and then re-open again at maturity to allow the seed to escape. Maturation takes 6–8 months from pollination in most Pinaceae genera, but 12 months in cedars and 18–24 months (rarely more) in most pines. The cones open either by the seed scales flexing back when they dry out, or (in firs, cedars and golden larch) by the cones disintegrating with the seed scales falling off. The cones are conic, cylindrical or ovoid (egg-shaped), and small to very large, from 2–60 cm long and 1–20 cm broad. After ripening, the opening of non-serotinous pine cones is associated with their moisture content—cones are open when dry and closed when wet. This assures that the small, windborne seeds will be dispersed during relatively dry weather, and thus, the distance traveled from the parent tree will be enhanced. A pine cone will go through many cycles of opening and closing during its life span, even after seed dispersal is complete. This process occurs with older cones while attached to branches and even after the older cones have fallen to the forest floor. The condition of fallen pine cones is a crude indication of the forest floor's moisture content, which is an important indication of wildfire risk. Closed cones indicate damp conditions while open cones indicate the forest floor is dry.

A pine cone consists of scales which protect seeds. The scales can open and close depending on conditions. The scales will open temporarily to receive pollen, then close again until the seeds mature. Once mature, the scales will open and close depending on their moisture content. Once the seeds are mature, the scales can open again to allow seeds to escape. When dry, the cones open allowing the small windborne seeds to disperse as widely as possible. This cycle of opening and closing continues until the seeds are dispersed.

summarization

### Instruction: How does a pine cone work? ### Context: The female cone has two types of scale: the bract scales, and the seed scales (or ovuliferous scales), one subtended by each bract scale, derived from a highly modified branchlet. On the upper-side base of each seed scale are two ovules that develop into seeds after fertilization by pollen grains. The bract scales develop first, and are conspicuous at the time of pollination; the seed scales develop later to enclose and protect the seeds, with the bract scales often not growing further. The scales open temporarily to receive pollen, then close during fertilization and maturation, and then re-open again at maturity to allow the seed to escape. Maturation takes 6–8 months from pollination in most Pinaceae genera, but 12 months in cedars and 18–24 months (rarely more) in most pines. The cones open either by the seed scales flexing back when they dry out, or (in firs, cedars and golden larch) by the cones disintegrating with the seed scales falling off. The cones are conic, cylindrical or ovoid (egg-shaped), and small to very large, from 2–60 cm long and 1–20 cm broad. After ripening, the opening of non-serotinous pine cones is associated with their moisture content—cones are open when dry and closed when wet. This assures that the small, windborne seeds will be dispersed during relatively dry weather, and thus, the distance traveled from the parent tree will be enhanced. A pine cone will go through many cycles of opening and closing during its life span, even after seed dispersal is complete. This process occurs with older cones while attached to branches and even after the older cones have fallen to the forest floor. The condition of fallen pine cones is a crude indication of the forest floor's moisture content, which is an important indication of wildfire risk. Closed cones indicate damp conditions while open cones indicate the forest floor is dry. ### Answer: A pine cone consists of scales which protect seeds. The scales can open and close depending on conditions. The scales will open temporarily to receive pollen, then close again until the seeds mature. Once mature, the scales will open and close depending on their moisture content. Once the seeds are mature, the scales can open again to allow seeds to escape. When dry, the cones open allowing the small windborne seeds to disperse as widely as possible. This cycle of opening and closing continues until the seeds are dispersed.</s>

Give me a bulleted list of 3 informal fallacies and the meaning each

Informal fallacies – arguments that are logically unsound for lack of well-grounded premises. Argument to moderation (false compromise, middle ground, fallacy of the mean, argumentum ad temperantiam) – assuming that a compromise between two positions is always correct. Continuum fallacy (fallacy of the beard, line-drawing fallacy, sorites fallacy, fallacy of the heap, bald man fallacy, decision-point fallacy) – improperly rejecting a claim for being imprecise. Correlative-based fallacies Suppressed correlative – a correlative is redefined so that one alternative is made impossible (e.g., "I'm not fat because I'm thinner than John."). Definist fallacy – defining a term used in an argument in a biased manner (e.g., using "loaded terms"). The person making the argument expects that the listener will accept the provided definition, making the argument difficult to refute. Divine fallacy (argument from incredulity) – arguing that, because something is so incredible or amazing, it must be the result of superior, divine, alien or paranormal agency. Double counting – counting events or occurrences more than once in probabilistic reasoning, which leads to the sum of the probabilities of all cases exceeding unity. Equivocation – using a term with more than one meaning in a statement without specifying which meaning is intended. Ambiguous middle term – using a middle term with multiple meanings. Definitional retreat – changing the meaning of a word when an objection is raised. Often paired with moving the goalposts (see below), as when an argument is challenged using a common definition of a term in the argument, and the arguer presents a different definition of the term and thereby demands different evidence to debunk the argument. Motte-and-bailey fallacy – conflating two positions with similar properties, one modest and easy to defend (the "motte") and one more controversial (the "bailey"). The arguer first states the controversial position, but when challenged, states that they are advancing the modest position. Fallacy of accent – changing the meaning of a statement by not specifying on which word emphasis falls. Persuasive definition – purporting to use the "true" or "commonly accepted" meaning of a term while, in reality, using an uncommon or altered definition. (cf. the if-by-whiskey fallacy) Ecological fallacy – inferring about the nature of an entity based solely upon aggregate statistics collected for the group to which that entity belongs. Etymological fallacy – assuming that the original or historical meaning of a word or phrase is necessarily similar to its actual present-day usage. Fallacy of composition – assuming that something true of part of a whole must also be true of the whole. Fallacy of division – assuming that something true of a composite thing must also be true of all or some of its parts. False attribution – appealing to an irrelevant, unqualified, unidentified, biased or fabricated source in support of an argument. Fallacy of quoting out of context (contextotomy, contextomy; quotation mining) – selective excerpting of words from their original context to distort the intended meaning. False authority (single authority) – using an expert of dubious credentials or using only one opinion to promote a product or idea. Related to the appeal to authority. False dilemma (false dichotomy, fallacy of bifurcation, black-or-white fallacy) – two alternative statements are given as the only possible options when, in reality, there are more. False equivalence – describing two or more statements as virtually equal when they are not. Feedback fallacy – believing in the objectivity of an evaluation to be used as the basis for improvement without verifying that the source of the evaluation is a disinterested party. Historian's fallacy – assuming that decision-makers of the past had identical information as those subsequently analyzing the decision. This should not to be confused with presentism, in which present-day ideas and perspectives are anachronistically projected into the past. Historical fallacy – believing that certain results occurred only because a specific process was performed, though said process may actually be unrelated to the results. Baconian fallacy – supposing that historians can obtain the "whole truth" via induction from individual pieces of historical evidence. The "whole truth" is defined as learning "something about everything", "everything about something", or "everything about everything". In reality, a historian "can only hope to know something about something". Homunculus fallacy – using a "middle-man" for explanation; this sometimes leads to regressive middle-men. It explains a concept in terms of the concept itself without explaining its real nature (e.g.: explaining thought as something produced by a little thinker – a homunculus – inside the head simply identifies an intermediary actor and does not explain the product or process of thinking). Inflation of conflict – arguing that, if experts in a field of knowledge disagree on a certain point within that field, no conclusion can be reached or that the legitimacy of that field of knowledge is questionable. If-by-whiskey – an argument that supports both sides of an issue by using terms that are emotionally sensitive and ambiguous. Incomplete comparison – insufficient information is provided to make a complete comparison. Intentionality fallacy – the insistence that the ultimate meaning of an expression must be consistent with the intention of the person from whom the communication originated (e.g. a work of fiction that is widely received as a blatant allegory must necessarily not be regarded as such if the author intended it not to be so). Kafkatrapping – a sophistical rhetorical device in which any denial by an accused person serves as evidence of guilt. Kettle logic – using multiple, jointly inconsistent arguments to defend a position. Ludic fallacy – failing to take into account that non-regulated random occurrences unknown unknowns can affect the probability of an event taking place. Lump of labour fallacy – the misconception that there is a fixed amount of work to be done within an economy, which can be distributed to create more or fewer jobs. McNamara fallacy (quantitative fallacy) – making an argument using only quantitative observations (measurements, statistical or numerical values) and discounting subjective information that focuses on quality (traits, features, or relationships). Mind projection fallacy – assuming that a statement about an object describes an inherent property of the object, rather than a personal perception. Moralistic fallacy – inferring factual conclusions from evaluative premises in violation of fact–value distinction (e.g.: inferring is from ought). Moralistic fallacy is the inverse of naturalistic fallacy. Moving the goalposts (raising the bar) – argument in which evidence presented in response to a specific claim is dismissed and some other (often greater) evidence is demanded. Nirvana fallacy (perfect-solution fallacy) – solutions to problems are rejected because they are not perfect. Package deal – treating essentially dissimilar concepts as though they were essentially similar. Proof by assertion – a proposition is repeatedly restated regardless of contradiction; sometimes confused with argument from repetition (argumentum ad infinitum, argumentum ad nauseam). Prosecutor's fallacy – a low probability of false matches does not mean a low probability of some false match being found. Proving too much – an argument that results in an overly generalized conclusion (e.g.: arguing that drinking alcohol is bad because in some instances it has led to spousal or child abuse). Psychologist's fallacy – an observer presupposes the objectivity of their own perspective when analyzing a behavioral event. Referential fallacy – assuming that all words refer to existing things and that the meaning of words reside within the things they refer to, as opposed to words possibly referring to no real object (e.g.: Pegasus) or that the meaning comes from how they are used (e.g.: "nobody" was in the room). Reification (concretism, hypostatization, or the fallacy of misplaced concreteness) – treating an abstract belief or hypothetical construct as if it were a concrete, real event or physical entity (e.g.: saying that evolution selects which traits are passed on to future generations; evolution is not a conscious entity with agency). Retrospective determinism – believing that, because an event has occurred under some circumstance, the circumstance must have made the event inevitable (e.g.: because someone won the lottery while wearing their lucky socks, wearing those socks made winning the lottery inevitable). Slippery slope (thin edge of the wedge, camel's nose) – asserting that a proposed, relatively small, first action will inevitably lead to a chain of related events resulting in a significant and negative event and, therefore, should not be permitted. Special pleading – the arguer attempts to cite something as an exemption to a generally accepted rule or principle without justifying the exemption (e.g.: an orphaned defendant who murdered their parents asking for leniency).

Three informal fallacies are: - False Authority: Using an expert with dubious credentials to promote an argument - Incomplete Comparison: Not enough information was provided to adequately make a comparison - Proof by Assertion: Restating the same argument regardless of counter arguments and contradictions

summarization

### Instruction: Give me a bulleted list of 3 informal fallacies and the meaning each ### Context: Informal fallacies – arguments that are logically unsound for lack of well-grounded premises. Argument to moderation (false compromise, middle ground, fallacy of the mean, argumentum ad temperantiam) – assuming that a compromise between two positions is always correct. Continuum fallacy (fallacy of the beard, line-drawing fallacy, sorites fallacy, fallacy of the heap, bald man fallacy, decision-point fallacy) – improperly rejecting a claim for being imprecise. Correlative-based fallacies Suppressed correlative – a correlative is redefined so that one alternative is made impossible (e.g., "I'm not fat because I'm thinner than John."). Definist fallacy – defining a term used in an argument in a biased manner (e.g., using "loaded terms"). The person making the argument expects that the listener will accept the provided definition, making the argument difficult to refute. Divine fallacy (argument from incredulity) – arguing that, because something is so incredible or amazing, it must be the result of superior, divine, alien or paranormal agency. Double counting – counting events or occurrences more than once in probabilistic reasoning, which leads to the sum of the probabilities of all cases exceeding unity. Equivocation – using a term with more than one meaning in a statement without specifying which meaning is intended. Ambiguous middle term – using a middle term with multiple meanings. Definitional retreat – changing the meaning of a word when an objection is raised. Often paired with moving the goalposts (see below), as when an argument is challenged using a common definition of a term in the argument, and the arguer presents a different definition of the term and thereby demands different evidence to debunk the argument. Motte-and-bailey fallacy – conflating two positions with similar properties, one modest and easy to defend (the "motte") and one more controversial (the "bailey"). The arguer first states the controversial position, but when challenged, states that they are advancing the modest position. Fallacy of accent – changing the meaning of a statement by not specifying on which word emphasis falls. Persuasive definition – purporting to use the "true" or "commonly accepted" meaning of a term while, in reality, using an uncommon or altered definition. (cf. the if-by-whiskey fallacy) Ecological fallacy – inferring about the nature of an entity based solely upon aggregate statistics collected for the group to which that entity belongs. Etymological fallacy – assuming that the original or historical meaning of a word or phrase is necessarily similar to its actual present-day usage. Fallacy of composition – assuming that something true of part of a whole must also be true of the whole. Fallacy of division – assuming that something true of a composite thing must also be true of all or some of its parts. False attribution – appealing to an irrelevant, unqualified, unidentified, biased or fabricated source in support of an argument. Fallacy of quoting out of context (contextotomy, contextomy; quotation mining) – selective excerpting of words from their original context to distort the intended meaning. False authority (single authority) – using an expert of dubious credentials or using only one opinion to promote a product or idea. Related to the appeal to authority. False dilemma (false dichotomy, fallacy of bifurcation, black-or-white fallacy) – two alternative statements are given as the only possible options when, in reality, there are more. False equivalence – describing two or more statements as virtually equal when they are not. Feedback fallacy – believing in the objectivity of an evaluation to be used as the basis for improvement without verifying that the source of the evaluation is a disinterested party. Historian's fallacy – assuming that decision-makers of the past had identical information as those subsequently analyzing the decision. This should not to be confused with presentism, in which present-day ideas and perspectives are anachronistically projected into the past. Historical fallacy – believing that certain results occurred only because a specific process was performed, though said process may actually be unrelated to the results. Baconian fallacy – supposing that historians can obtain the "whole truth" via induction from individual pieces of historical evidence. The "whole truth" is defined as learning "something about everything", "everything about something", or "everything about everything". In reality, a historian "can only hope to know something about something". Homunculus fallacy – using a "middle-man" for explanation; this sometimes leads to regressive middle-men. It explains a concept in terms of the concept itself without explaining its real nature (e.g.: explaining thought as something produced by a little thinker – a homunculus – inside the head simply identifies an intermediary actor and does not explain the product or process of thinking). Inflation of conflict – arguing that, if experts in a field of knowledge disagree on a certain point within that field, no conclusion can be reached or that the legitimacy of that field of knowledge is questionable. If-by-whiskey – an argument that supports both sides of an issue by using terms that are emotionally sensitive and ambiguous. Incomplete comparison – insufficient information is provided to make a complete comparison. Intentionality fallacy – the insistence that the ultimate meaning of an expression must be consistent with the intention of the person from whom the communication originated (e.g. a work of fiction that is widely received as a blatant allegory must necessarily not be regarded as such if the author intended it not to be so). Kafkatrapping – a sophistical rhetorical device in which any denial by an accused person serves as evidence of guilt. Kettle logic – using multiple, jointly inconsistent arguments to defend a position. Ludic fallacy – failing to take into account that non-regulated random occurrences unknown unknowns can affect the probability of an event taking place. Lump of labour fallacy – the misconception that there is a fixed amount of work to be done within an economy, which can be distributed to create more or fewer jobs. McNamara fallacy (quantitative fallacy) – making an argument using only quantitative observations (measurements, statistical or numerical values) and discounting subjective information that focuses on quality (traits, features, or relationships). Mind projection fallacy – assuming that a statement about an object describes an inherent property of the object, rather than a personal perception. Moralistic fallacy – inferring factual conclusions from evaluative premises in violation of fact–value distinction (e.g.: inferring is from ought). Moralistic fallacy is the inverse of naturalistic fallacy. Moving the goalposts (raising the bar) – argument in which evidence presented in response to a specific claim is dismissed and some other (often greater) evidence is demanded. Nirvana fallacy (perfect-solution fallacy) – solutions to problems are rejected because they are not perfect. Package deal – treating essentially dissimilar concepts as though they were essentially similar. Proof by assertion – a proposition is repeatedly restated regardless of contradiction; sometimes confused with argument from repetition (argumentum ad infinitum, argumentum ad nauseam). Prosecutor's fallacy – a low probability of false matches does not mean a low probability of some false match being found. Proving too much – an argument that results in an overly generalized conclusion (e.g.: arguing that drinking alcohol is bad because in some instances it has led to spousal or child abuse). Psychologist's fallacy – an observer presupposes the objectivity of their own perspective when analyzing a behavioral event. Referential fallacy – assuming that all words refer to existing things and that the meaning of words reside within the things they refer to, as opposed to words possibly referring to no real object (e.g.: Pegasus) or that the meaning comes from how they are used (e.g.: "nobody" was in the room). Reification (concretism, hypostatization, or the fallacy of misplaced concreteness) – treating an abstract belief or hypothetical construct as if it were a concrete, real event or physical entity (e.g.: saying that evolution selects which traits are passed on to future generations; evolution is not a conscious entity with agency). Retrospective determinism – believing that, because an event has occurred under some circumstance, the circumstance must have made the event inevitable (e.g.: because someone won the lottery while wearing their lucky socks, wearing those socks made winning the lottery inevitable). Slippery slope (thin edge of the wedge, camel's nose) – asserting that a proposed, relatively small, first action will inevitably lead to a chain of related events resulting in a significant and negative event and, therefore, should not be permitted. Special pleading – the arguer attempts to cite something as an exemption to a generally accepted rule or principle without justifying the exemption (e.g.: an orphaned defendant who murdered their parents asking for leniency). ### Answer: Three informal fallacies are: - False Authority: Using an expert with dubious credentials to promote an argument - Incomplete Comparison: Not enough information was provided to adequately make a comparison - Proof by Assertion: Restating the same argument regardless of counter arguments and contradictions</s>

Summarize the lay out of the Jardins du Château Val Joanis

The Jardins du Château Val Joanis are gardens which belong to the Château Val Joanis winery, located west of the town of Pertuis in the Vaucluse Department of France. The gardens are inspired by the 17th century bastide, or Provençal manor, which stands on the site. They are private but open to the public, and are classified by the French Ministry of Culture among the Remarkable Gardens of France. History The Chateau is built on the site of an ancient Roman villa, some of whose stones today decorate the garden. The building is decorated with the coat of arms of Jean de Joanis, the secretary of the King Louis III of Naples. The estate was occupied by the Arnaud family, who kept it until the 17th century. In 1754, the estate was given the status of a fief. The house and estate fell into ruins during the 19th century. It was purchased in 1977 by Jean-Louis Chancel. Between 1979 and 1999, he planted 186 hectares of vines. He also commissioned the architect Jean-Jacques Pichoux to build a modern winery building, inspired by the architectural style of the Dominican Order. In 1978, Cécile Chancel decided to build a garden in the style of a 17th-century kitchen garden. She had terraces dug on the hillside next to the vineyards, researched different garden styles, and, with the assistance of landscape gardener Tobie Loup de Vian, began building. The garden reached its present form by 1990. It was classified as a Remarkable Garden of France in 2005. Description The gardens are laid out on three terraces: The upper terrace is a kitchen garden and flower garden, featuring lavender cut into spheres, squash, salad plants, fennel, and aromatic plants and herbs. Different varieties of tomatoes are grown on bamboo frames, and there are pyramids of ivy and hops (Humulus lupulus). The middle terrace features flowers, particularly roses. The paths are bordered with Iris × germanica and with yew trees trimmed into cones. The lower terrace features fruit trees, particularly old varieties of apples and pears. The garden also has a garden of herbs, a collection of asters, and boxwood hedges trimmed in ornamental forms. An arbor or pergola covered with climbing roses and trumpet creeper (Campsis) climbs the hill and joins the three terraces. Tables and seats are placed at scenic spots with views of the garden and the vineyards beyond. The best times to visit the garden are June and July for the flowers, or September for the change of colors of the vineyards and trees.

The Jardins du Château Val Joanis are separated into the following three terraces: - The upper terrace, with a kitchen and flower garden - The middle terrace, featuring flowers - The lower terrace, featuring fruit trees

summarization

### Instruction: Summarize the lay out of the Jardins du Château Val Joanis ### Context: The Jardins du Château Val Joanis are gardens which belong to the Château Val Joanis winery, located west of the town of Pertuis in the Vaucluse Department of France. The gardens are inspired by the 17th century bastide, or Provençal manor, which stands on the site. They are private but open to the public, and are classified by the French Ministry of Culture among the Remarkable Gardens of France. History The Chateau is built on the site of an ancient Roman villa, some of whose stones today decorate the garden. The building is decorated with the coat of arms of Jean de Joanis, the secretary of the King Louis III of Naples. The estate was occupied by the Arnaud family, who kept it until the 17th century. In 1754, the estate was given the status of a fief. The house and estate fell into ruins during the 19th century. It was purchased in 1977 by Jean-Louis Chancel. Between 1979 and 1999, he planted 186 hectares of vines. He also commissioned the architect Jean-Jacques Pichoux to build a modern winery building, inspired by the architectural style of the Dominican Order. In 1978, Cécile Chancel decided to build a garden in the style of a 17th-century kitchen garden. She had terraces dug on the hillside next to the vineyards, researched different garden styles, and, with the assistance of landscape gardener Tobie Loup de Vian, began building. The garden reached its present form by 1990. It was classified as a Remarkable Garden of France in 2005. Description The gardens are laid out on three terraces: The upper terrace is a kitchen garden and flower garden, featuring lavender cut into spheres, squash, salad plants, fennel, and aromatic plants and herbs. Different varieties of tomatoes are grown on bamboo frames, and there are pyramids of ivy and hops (Humulus lupulus). The middle terrace features flowers, particularly roses. The paths are bordered with Iris × germanica and with yew trees trimmed into cones. The lower terrace features fruit trees, particularly old varieties of apples and pears. The garden also has a garden of herbs, a collection of asters, and boxwood hedges trimmed in ornamental forms. An arbor or pergola covered with climbing roses and trumpet creeper (Campsis) climbs the hill and joins the three terraces. Tables and seats are placed at scenic spots with views of the garden and the vineyards beyond. The best times to visit the garden are June and July for the flowers, or September for the change of colors of the vineyards and trees. ### Answer: The Jardins du Château Val Joanis are separated into the following three terraces: - The upper terrace, with a kitchen and flower garden - The middle terrace, featuring flowers - The lower terrace, featuring fruit trees</s>

Without quoting directly from the text give me a summary of the half dome hike.

The Half Dome Cable Route hike runs from the valley floor to the top of the dome in 8.2 mi (13 km) (via the Mist Trail), with 4,800 ft (1,460 m) of elevation gain. The length and difficulty of the trail used to keep it less crowded than other park trails, but in recent years the trail traffic has grown to as many as 800 people a day. The hike can be done from the valley floor in a single long day, but many people break it up by camping overnight in Little Yosemite Valley. The trail climbs past Vernal Fall and Nevada Fall, then continues into Little Yosemite Valley, then north to the base of the northeast ridge of Half Dome itself. The final 400 ft (120 m) ascent is steeply up the rock between two steel cables used as handholds. The cables are fixed with bolts in the rock and raised onto a series of metal poles in late May (the poles do not anchor the cables). The cables are taken down from the poles for the winter in early October, but they are still fixed to the rock surface and can be used. The National Park Service recommends against climbing the route when the cables are down or when the surface of the rock is wet and slippery. The Cable Route is rated class 3, while the same face away from the cables is rated class 5. The Cable Route gets crowded on the weekends The Cable Route can be crowded. In past years, as many as 1,000 hikers per day have climbed the dome on a summer weekend, and about 50,000 hikers climb it every year. Since 2011, all hikers who intend to ascend the Cable Route must now obtain permits before entering the park when the cables are up between May and October. Permits are checked by a ranger on the trail, and no hikers without permits are allowed to hike beyond the base of the sub-dome or to the bottom of the cables. Hikers caught bypassing the rangers to visit either the sub-dome or main dome without a permit face fines of up to $5,000 and/or 6 months in jail. Backpackers with an appropriate wilderness permit can receive a Half Dome permit when they pick up their wilderness permit with no additional reservation required. Rock climbers who reach the top of Half Dome without entering the subdome area can descend on the Half Dome Trail without a permit. The top of Half Dome is a large, flat area where climbers can relax and enjoy their accomplishment. The summit offers views of the surrounding areas, including Little Yosemite Valley and the Valley Floor. A notable location to one side of Half Dome is the "Diving Board", where Ansel Adams took his photograph Monolith, the Face of Half Dome on April 10, 1927. Often confused with "the Visor," a small overhanging ledge at the summit, the Diving Board is on the shoulder of Half Dome. From 1919 when the cables were erected through 2011, there have been seven fatal falls from the cables. The latest fatality occurred on September 5, 2019. Lightning strikes can be a risk while on or near the summit. On July 27, 1985, five hikers were struck by lightning, resulting in two fatalities. The Cable Route was added to the National Register of Historic Places in 2012.

The half dome hike is 8.2 miles long with 4800 ft elevation gain. This hike can be done in a single long day or in two days by camping overnight in Little Yosemite Valley. The trail goes past Vernal and Nevada waterfalls, continues to Little Yosemite Valley and then to the half dome itself. The final 400 ft of the hike involves a steep ascent up the rock using the two steel cables fixed with bolts in the rock. The cables are put up between May and October and it is not recommended to climb the route when cables are down since the surface can be wet and slippery. All the hikers to half dome are required to obtain permits which are checked by a ranger on the trail. Hikers caught bypassing the rangers without permits are subject to penalties.

summarization

### Instruction: Without quoting directly from the text give me a summary of the half dome hike. ### Context: The Half Dome Cable Route hike runs from the valley floor to the top of the dome in 8.2 mi (13 km) (via the Mist Trail), with 4,800 ft (1,460 m) of elevation gain. The length and difficulty of the trail used to keep it less crowded than other park trails, but in recent years the trail traffic has grown to as many as 800 people a day. The hike can be done from the valley floor in a single long day, but many people break it up by camping overnight in Little Yosemite Valley. The trail climbs past Vernal Fall and Nevada Fall, then continues into Little Yosemite Valley, then north to the base of the northeast ridge of Half Dome itself. The final 400 ft (120 m) ascent is steeply up the rock between two steel cables used as handholds. The cables are fixed with bolts in the rock and raised onto a series of metal poles in late May (the poles do not anchor the cables). The cables are taken down from the poles for the winter in early October, but they are still fixed to the rock surface and can be used. The National Park Service recommends against climbing the route when the cables are down or when the surface of the rock is wet and slippery. The Cable Route is rated class 3, while the same face away from the cables is rated class 5. The Cable Route gets crowded on the weekends The Cable Route can be crowded. In past years, as many as 1,000 hikers per day have climbed the dome on a summer weekend, and about 50,000 hikers climb it every year. Since 2011, all hikers who intend to ascend the Cable Route must now obtain permits before entering the park when the cables are up between May and October. Permits are checked by a ranger on the trail, and no hikers without permits are allowed to hike beyond the base of the sub-dome or to the bottom of the cables. Hikers caught bypassing the rangers to visit either the sub-dome or main dome without a permit face fines of up to $5,000 and/or 6 months in jail. Backpackers with an appropriate wilderness permit can receive a Half Dome permit when they pick up their wilderness permit with no additional reservation required. Rock climbers who reach the top of Half Dome without entering the subdome area can descend on the Half Dome Trail without a permit. The top of Half Dome is a large, flat area where climbers can relax and enjoy their accomplishment. The summit offers views of the surrounding areas, including Little Yosemite Valley and the Valley Floor. A notable location to one side of Half Dome is the "Diving Board", where Ansel Adams took his photograph Monolith, the Face of Half Dome on April 10, 1927. Often confused with "the Visor," a small overhanging ledge at the summit, the Diving Board is on the shoulder of Half Dome. From 1919 when the cables were erected through 2011, there have been seven fatal falls from the cables. The latest fatality occurred on September 5, 2019. Lightning strikes can be a risk while on or near the summit. On July 27, 1985, five hikers were struck by lightning, resulting in two fatalities. The Cable Route was added to the National Register of Historic Places in 2012. ### Answer: The half dome hike is 8.2 miles long with 4800 ft elevation gain. This hike can be done in a single long day or in two days by camping overnight in Little Yosemite Valley. The trail goes past Vernal and Nevada waterfalls, continues to Little Yosemite Valley and then to the half dome itself. The final 400 ft of the hike involves a steep ascent up the rock using the two steel cables fixed with bolts in the rock. The cables are put up between May and October and it is not recommended to climb the route when cables are down since the surface can be wet and slippery. All the hikers to half dome are required to obtain permits which are checked by a ranger on the trail. Hikers caught bypassing the rangers without permits are subject to penalties.</s>

Can you list a few cities that Obama lived in from the below text?

Barack Hussein Obama II (/bəˈrɑːk huːˈseɪn oʊˈbɑːmə/ (listen) bə-RAHK hoo-SAYN oh-BAH-mə; born August 4, 1961) is an American former politician who served as the 44th president of the United States from 2009 to 2017. A member of the Democratic Party, he was the first African-American president of the United States. Obama previously served as a U.S. senator representing Illinois from 2005 to 2008 and as an Illinois state senator from 1997 to 2004, and worked as a civil rights lawyer before holding public office. Obama was born in Honolulu, Hawaii. After graduating from Columbia University in 1983, he worked as a community organizer in Chicago. In 1988, he enrolled in Harvard Law School, where he was the first black president of the Harvard Law Review. After graduating, he became a civil rights attorney and an academic, teaching constitutional law at the University of Chicago Law School from 1992 to 2004. Turning to elective politics, he represented the 13th district in the Illinois Senate from 1997 until 2004, when he ran for the U.S. Senate. Obama received national attention in 2004 with his March Senate primary win, his well-received keynote address at the July Democratic National Convention, and his landslide November election to the Senate. In 2008, after a close primary campaign against Hillary Clinton, he was nominated by the Democratic Party for president and chose Joe Biden as his running mate. Obama was elected over Republican nominee John McCain in the presidential election and was inaugurated on January 20, 2009. Nine months later, he was named the 2009 Nobel Peace Prize laureate, a decision that drew a mixture of praise and criticism. Obama's first-term actions addressed the global financial crisis and included a major stimulus package, a partial extension of George W. Bush's tax cuts, legislation to reform health care, a major financial regulation reform bill, and the end of a major US military presence in Iraq. Obama also appointed Supreme Court justices Sonia Sotomayor and Elena Kagan, the former being the first Hispanic American on the Supreme Court. He ordered the counterterrorism raid which killed Osama bin Laden and downplayed Bush's counterinsurgency model, expanding air strikes and making extensive use of special forces while encouraging greater reliance on host-government militaries.

Honolulu, Chicago,

summarization

### Instruction: Can you list a few cities that Obama lived in from the below text? ### Context: Barack Hussein Obama II (/bəˈrɑːk huːˈseɪn oʊˈbɑːmə/ (listen) bə-RAHK hoo-SAYN oh-BAH-mə; born August 4, 1961) is an American former politician who served as the 44th president of the United States from 2009 to 2017. A member of the Democratic Party, he was the first African-American president of the United States. Obama previously served as a U.S. senator representing Illinois from 2005 to 2008 and as an Illinois state senator from 1997 to 2004, and worked as a civil rights lawyer before holding public office. Obama was born in Honolulu, Hawaii. After graduating from Columbia University in 1983, he worked as a community organizer in Chicago. In 1988, he enrolled in Harvard Law School, where he was the first black president of the Harvard Law Review. After graduating, he became a civil rights attorney and an academic, teaching constitutional law at the University of Chicago Law School from 1992 to 2004. Turning to elective politics, he represented the 13th district in the Illinois Senate from 1997 until 2004, when he ran for the U.S. Senate. Obama received national attention in 2004 with his March Senate primary win, his well-received keynote address at the July Democratic National Convention, and his landslide November election to the Senate. In 2008, after a close primary campaign against Hillary Clinton, he was nominated by the Democratic Party for president and chose Joe Biden as his running mate. Obama was elected over Republican nominee John McCain in the presidential election and was inaugurated on January 20, 2009. Nine months later, he was named the 2009 Nobel Peace Prize laureate, a decision that drew a mixture of praise and criticism. Obama's first-term actions addressed the global financial crisis and included a major stimulus package, a partial extension of George W. Bush's tax cuts, legislation to reform health care, a major financial regulation reform bill, and the end of a major US military presence in Iraq. Obama also appointed Supreme Court justices Sonia Sotomayor and Elena Kagan, the former being the first Hispanic American on the Supreme Court. He ordered the counterterrorism raid which killed Osama bin Laden and downplayed Bush's counterinsurgency model, expanding air strikes and making extensive use of special forces while encouraging greater reliance on host-government militaries. ### Answer: Honolulu, Chicago,</s>

Please describe what Business Process Mapping is and why it is used

Business process mapping refers to activities involved in defining what a business entity does, who is responsible, to what standard a business process should be completed, and how the success of a business process can be determined. The main purpose behind business process mapping is to assist organizations in becoming more effective. A clear and detailed business process map or diagram allows outside firms to come in and look at whether or not improvements can be made to the current process. Business process mapping takes a specific objective and helps to measure and compare that objective alongside the entire organization's objectives to make sure that all processes are aligned with the company's values and capabilities. International Organization for Standardization or ISO 9001 : 2015 encourages a process approach to quality management. It is important to understand how each process relates to other processes within the organization and how those interactions impact Quality Management.

Business Process Mapping describes the capture of a set of business activities that deliver an outcome. Mapping is usually performed using visual tools that use standardized shapes to indicate entities. Mapping involves capturing activities, the roles performing the activities, systems and tools used to execute the activities and inputs and outputs from the activities. Process mapping is frequently conducted in cross functional workshops with a facilitator capturing the activities performed by Subject Matter Experts (SMEs). Common uses of process mapping include: * automation * compliance documentation * business process improvement * standardization

summarization

### Instruction: Please describe what Business Process Mapping is and why it is used ### Context: Business process mapping refers to activities involved in defining what a business entity does, who is responsible, to what standard a business process should be completed, and how the success of a business process can be determined. The main purpose behind business process mapping is to assist organizations in becoming more effective. A clear and detailed business process map or diagram allows outside firms to come in and look at whether or not improvements can be made to the current process. Business process mapping takes a specific objective and helps to measure and compare that objective alongside the entire organization's objectives to make sure that all processes are aligned with the company's values and capabilities. International Organization for Standardization or ISO 9001 : 2015 encourages a process approach to quality management. It is important to understand how each process relates to other processes within the organization and how those interactions impact Quality Management. ### Answer: Business Process Mapping describes the capture of a set of business activities that deliver an outcome. Mapping is usually performed using visual tools that use standardized shapes to indicate entities. Mapping involves capturing activities, the roles performing the activities, systems and tools used to execute the activities and inputs and outputs from the activities. Process mapping is frequently conducted in cross functional workshops with a facilitator capturing the activities performed by Subject Matter Experts (SMEs). Common uses of process mapping include: * automation * compliance documentation * business process improvement * standardization</s>

What is a yellow or red card in soccer?

A foul occurs when a player commits an offence listed in the Laws of the Game while the ball is in play. The offences that constitute a foul are listed in Law 12. Handling the ball deliberately, tripping an opponent, or pushing an opponent, are examples of "penal fouls", punishable by a direct free kick or penalty kick depending on where the offence occurred. Other fouls are punishable by an indirect free kick. The referee may punish a player's or substitute's misconduct by a caution (yellow card) or dismissal (red card). A second yellow card in the same game leads to a red card, which results in a dismissal. A player given a yellow card is said to have been "booked", the referee writing the player's name in their official notebook. If a player has been dismissed, no substitute can be brought on in their place and the player may not participate in further play. Misconduct may occur at any time, and while the offences that constitute misconduct are listed, the definitions are broad. In particular, the offence of "unsporting behaviour" may be used to deal with most events that violate the spirit of the game, even if they are not listed as specific offences. A referee can show a yellow or red card to a player, substitute, substituted player, and to non-players such as managers and support staff. Rather than stopping play, the referee may allow play to continue if doing so will benefit the team against which an offence has been committed. This is known as "playing an advantage". The referee may "call back" play and penalise the original offence if the anticipated advantage does not ensue within "a few seconds". Even if an offence is not penalised due to advantage being played, the offender may still be sanctioned for misconduct at the next stoppage of play. The referee's decision in all on-pitch matters is considered final. The score of a match cannot be altered after the game, even if later evidence shows that decisions (including awards/non-awards of goals) were incorrect.

In the game of soccer, whenever a player commits a foul, the referee can give a player a yellow card or a red card. A yellow card is a caution/warning. A red card is a dismissal and the player has to leave the field.

summarization

### Instruction: What is a yellow or red card in soccer? ### Context: A foul occurs when a player commits an offence listed in the Laws of the Game while the ball is in play. The offences that constitute a foul are listed in Law 12. Handling the ball deliberately, tripping an opponent, or pushing an opponent, are examples of "penal fouls", punishable by a direct free kick or penalty kick depending on where the offence occurred. Other fouls are punishable by an indirect free kick. The referee may punish a player's or substitute's misconduct by a caution (yellow card) or dismissal (red card). A second yellow card in the same game leads to a red card, which results in a dismissal. A player given a yellow card is said to have been "booked", the referee writing the player's name in their official notebook. If a player has been dismissed, no substitute can be brought on in their place and the player may not participate in further play. Misconduct may occur at any time, and while the offences that constitute misconduct are listed, the definitions are broad. In particular, the offence of "unsporting behaviour" may be used to deal with most events that violate the spirit of the game, even if they are not listed as specific offences. A referee can show a yellow or red card to a player, substitute, substituted player, and to non-players such as managers and support staff. Rather than stopping play, the referee may allow play to continue if doing so will benefit the team against which an offence has been committed. This is known as "playing an advantage". The referee may "call back" play and penalise the original offence if the anticipated advantage does not ensue within "a few seconds". Even if an offence is not penalised due to advantage being played, the offender may still be sanctioned for misconduct at the next stoppage of play. The referee's decision in all on-pitch matters is considered final. The score of a match cannot be altered after the game, even if later evidence shows that decisions (including awards/non-awards of goals) were incorrect. ### Answer: In the game of soccer, whenever a player commits a foul, the referee can give a player a yellow card or a red card. A yellow card is a caution/warning. A red card is a dismissal and the player has to leave the field.</s>

Give me a summary of the paragraph in your own words and it should be short

Recreational drug use is the use of one or more psychoactive drugs to induce an altered state of consciousness either for pleasure or for some other casual purpose or pastime. When a psychoactive drug enters the user's body, it induces an intoxicating effect. Generally, recreational drugs are divided into three categories: depressants (drugs that induce a feeling of relaxation and calmness), stimulants (drugs that induce a sense of energy and alertness), and hallucinogens (drugs that induce perceptual distortions such as hallucination). In popular practice, recreational drug use generally is a tolerated social behaviour, rather than perceived as the medical condition of self-medication. However, drug use and drug addiction are severely stigmatized everywhere in the world. Many people also use prescribed and controlled depressants such as opioids, as well as opiates and benzodiazepines. What controlled substances are considered generally unlawful to possess varies by country, but usually includes cannabis, cocaine, opioids, MDMA, amphetamine, methamphetamine, psychedelics, benzodiazepines, and barbiturates. As of 2015, it is estimated that about 5% of people worldwide aged 15 to 65 (158 million to 351 million) had used controlled drugs at least once. Common recreational drugs include caffeine, commonly found in coffee, tea, soft drinks, and chocolate; alcohol, commonly found in beer, wine, cocktails, and distilled spirits; nicotine, commonly found in tobacco, tobacco-based products, and electronic cigarettes; cannabis and hashish (with legality of possession varying inter/intra-nationally); and the controlled substances listed as controlled drugs in the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs (1961) and the Convention on Psychotropic Substances (1971) of the United Nations (UN). Since the early 2000s, the European Union (EU) has developed several comprehensive and multidisciplinary strategies as part of its drug policy in order to prevent the diffusion of recreational drug use and abuse among the European population and raise public awareness on the adverse effects of drugs among all member states of the European Union, as well as conjoined efforts with European law enforcement agencies, such as the Europol and EMCDDA, in order to counter organized crime and illegal drug trade in Europe.

Recreational drug use refers to using certain drugs for enjoyment or leisure purposes instead of for medicinal reasons. Some common recreational drugs include caffeine, alcohol, nicotine, marijuana, and synthetic drugs like ecstasy. While many countries consider recreational drug use legal, there are still laws surrounding their consumption and distribution. The EU has implemented various policies aimed at reducing recreational drug use and addressing issues related to drug trafficking within its borders. People often take recreational drugs because they want to experience feelings of euphoria, increased energy levels, or enhanced sensory perception. However, these drugs can have serious side effects, including dependence, withdrawal symptoms, impaired judgment and motor skills, and even death. Additionally, recreational drug use can lead to legal consequences, financial problems, strained relationships, and health issues such as mental illness, organ damage, and overdose. Despite these risks, many individuals continue to engage in recreational drug use due to peer pressure, stress relief, or simply for the thrill of it. Overall, recreational drug use poses significant dangers to both individual users and society as a whole.

summarization

### Instruction: Give me a summary of the paragraph in your own words and it should be short ### Context: Recreational drug use is the use of one or more psychoactive drugs to induce an altered state of consciousness either for pleasure or for some other casual purpose or pastime. When a psychoactive drug enters the user's body, it induces an intoxicating effect. Generally, recreational drugs are divided into three categories: depressants (drugs that induce a feeling of relaxation and calmness), stimulants (drugs that induce a sense of energy and alertness), and hallucinogens (drugs that induce perceptual distortions such as hallucination). In popular practice, recreational drug use generally is a tolerated social behaviour, rather than perceived as the medical condition of self-medication. However, drug use and drug addiction are severely stigmatized everywhere in the world. Many people also use prescribed and controlled depressants such as opioids, as well as opiates and benzodiazepines. What controlled substances are considered generally unlawful to possess varies by country, but usually includes cannabis, cocaine, opioids, MDMA, amphetamine, methamphetamine, psychedelics, benzodiazepines, and barbiturates. As of 2015, it is estimated that about 5% of people worldwide aged 15 to 65 (158 million to 351 million) had used controlled drugs at least once. Common recreational drugs include caffeine, commonly found in coffee, tea, soft drinks, and chocolate; alcohol, commonly found in beer, wine, cocktails, and distilled spirits; nicotine, commonly found in tobacco, tobacco-based products, and electronic cigarettes; cannabis and hashish (with legality of possession varying inter/intra-nationally); and the controlled substances listed as controlled drugs in the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs (1961) and the Convention on Psychotropic Substances (1971) of the United Nations (UN). Since the early 2000s, the European Union (EU) has developed several comprehensive and multidisciplinary strategies as part of its drug policy in order to prevent the diffusion of recreational drug use and abuse among the European population and raise public awareness on the adverse effects of drugs among all member states of the European Union, as well as conjoined efforts with European law enforcement agencies, such as the Europol and EMCDDA, in order to counter organized crime and illegal drug trade in Europe. ### Answer: Recreational drug use refers to using certain drugs for enjoyment or leisure purposes instead of for medicinal reasons. Some common recreational drugs include caffeine, alcohol, nicotine, marijuana, and synthetic drugs like ecstasy. While many countries consider recreational drug use legal, there are still laws surrounding their consumption and distribution. The EU has implemented various policies aimed at reducing recreational drug use and addressing issues related to drug trafficking within its borders. People often take recreational drugs because they want to experience feelings of euphoria, increased energy levels, or enhanced sensory perception. However, these drugs can have serious side effects, including dependence, withdrawal symptoms, impaired judgment and motor skills, and even death. Additionally, recreational drug use can lead to legal consequences, financial problems, strained relationships, and health issues such as mental illness, organ damage, and overdose. Despite these risks, many individuals continue to engage in recreational drug use due to peer pressure, stress relief, or simply for the thrill of it. Overall, recreational drug use poses significant dangers to both individual users and society as a whole.</s>

Please provide a list of Michael Jordan's accomplishments in the 1987-1988 NBA basketball season.

NBA achievements Naismith Memorial Basketball Hall of Fame Class of 2009 6× NBA champion: 1991, 1992, 1993, 1996, 1997, 1998 5× NBA Most Valuable Player: 1987–88, 1990–91, 1991–92, 1995–96, 1997–98 6× NBA Finals Most Valuable Player: 1991, 1992, 1993, 1996, 1997, 1998 10× Scoring leader: 1986–87, 1987–88, 1988–89, 1989–90, 1990–91, 1991–92, 1992–93, 1995–96, 1996–97, 1997–98 NBA Defensive Player of the Year: 1987-88 NBA Rookie of the Year: 1984-85 14× NBA All-Star: 1985, 1986 (selected but injured), 1987, 1988, 1989, 1990, 1991, 1992, 1993, 1996, 1997, 1998, 2002, 2003 3× NBA All-Star Game Most Valuable Player: 1988, 1996, 1998 2× NBA Slam Dunk Contest champion: 1987, 1988 Runner-up in 1985 3× Steals leader: 1987–88, 1989–90, 1992–93 2× Minutes leader: 1987–88, 1988–89 2× IBM Award winner: 1985, 1989 11× All-NBA selection: First Team: 1987–93, 1996–98 Second Team: 1985 9× All-Defensive selection: First Team: 1988–93, 1996–98 NBA All-Rookie selection: First Team: 1985 7× The Sporting News Most Valuable Player: 1987–88, 1988–89, 1990–91, 1991–92, 1995–96, 1996–97, 1997–98 The Sporting News Rookie of the Year: 1985 Sports Illustrated Sportsman of the Year: 1991 Ranked #1 by SLAM Magazine's Top 50 Players of All-time Ranked #1 by ESPN SportsCentury's Top North American Athletes of the 20th Century Selected in 1996 as one of the "50 Greatest Players in NBA History" Selected in 1996 as member of two of the "Top 10 Teams in NBA History" 1991–92 Chicago Bulls (67–15; .817) 1995–96 Chicago Bulls (72–10; .878) 25 NBA Player of the Week 16 NBA Player of the Month

In the 1987-1988 NBA Season, Michael Jordan had several achievements, including: -NBA Most Valuable Player -NBA Scoring Leader -NBA Defensive Player of the Year -NBA Slam Dunk Contest Champion -NBA Steals Leader -NBA Minutes Leader -All-NBA First Team -NBA All-Defensive Team -The Sporting News Most Valuable Player

summarization

### Instruction: Please provide a list of Michael Jordan's accomplishments in the 1987-1988 NBA basketball season. ### Context: NBA achievements Naismith Memorial Basketball Hall of Fame Class of 2009 6× NBA champion: 1991, 1992, 1993, 1996, 1997, 1998 5× NBA Most Valuable Player: 1987–88, 1990–91, 1991–92, 1995–96, 1997–98 6× NBA Finals Most Valuable Player: 1991, 1992, 1993, 1996, 1997, 1998 10× Scoring leader: 1986–87, 1987–88, 1988–89, 1989–90, 1990–91, 1991–92, 1992–93, 1995–96, 1996–97, 1997–98 NBA Defensive Player of the Year: 1987-88 NBA Rookie of the Year: 1984-85 14× NBA All-Star: 1985, 1986 (selected but injured), 1987, 1988, 1989, 1990, 1991, 1992, 1993, 1996, 1997, 1998, 2002, 2003 3× NBA All-Star Game Most Valuable Player: 1988, 1996, 1998 2× NBA Slam Dunk Contest champion: 1987, 1988 Runner-up in 1985 3× Steals leader: 1987–88, 1989–90, 1992–93 2× Minutes leader: 1987–88, 1988–89 2× IBM Award winner: 1985, 1989 11× All-NBA selection: First Team: 1987–93, 1996–98 Second Team: 1985 9× All-Defensive selection: First Team: 1988–93, 1996–98 NBA All-Rookie selection: First Team: 1985 7× The Sporting News Most Valuable Player: 1987–88, 1988–89, 1990–91, 1991–92, 1995–96, 1996–97, 1997–98 The Sporting News Rookie of the Year: 1985 Sports Illustrated Sportsman of the Year: 1991 Ranked #1 by SLAM Magazine's Top 50 Players of All-time Ranked #1 by ESPN SportsCentury's Top North American Athletes of the 20th Century Selected in 1996 as one of the "50 Greatest Players in NBA History" Selected in 1996 as member of two of the "Top 10 Teams in NBA History" 1991–92 Chicago Bulls (67–15; .817) 1995–96 Chicago Bulls (72–10; .878) 25 NBA Player of the Week 16 NBA Player of the Month ### Answer: In the 1987-1988 NBA Season, Michael Jordan had several achievements, including: -NBA Most Valuable Player -NBA Scoring Leader -NBA Defensive Player of the Year -NBA Slam Dunk Contest Champion -NBA Steals Leader -NBA Minutes Leader -All-NBA First Team -NBA All-Defensive Team -The Sporting News Most Valuable Player</s>

What color of light does the Haugsholmen Lighthouse emit?

Haugsholmen Lighthouse (Norwegian: Haugsholmen fyr) is a coastal lighthouse located in the municipality of Sande in Møre og Romsdal county, Norway. It is located on the tiny island of Vestre Frekøy, in the mouth of the Vanylvsfjorden, about 2.5 kilometres (1.6 mi) southwest of the island of Kvamsøya. It was established in 1876 and automated in 1979. The 10-metre (33 ft) tall tower sits at an elevation of 19.7 metres (65 ft) above sea level. The light emits white, red or green light, depending on direction, occulting twice every 10 seconds. The red cylindrical tower with lantern and gallery is attached to one corner of a 2+1⁄2-story white keeper's house.

The light emits white, red or green light, depending on direction, occulting twice every 10 seconds.

summarization

### Instruction: What color of light does the Haugsholmen Lighthouse emit? ### Context: Haugsholmen Lighthouse (Norwegian: Haugsholmen fyr) is a coastal lighthouse located in the municipality of Sande in Møre og Romsdal county, Norway. It is located on the tiny island of Vestre Frekøy, in the mouth of the Vanylvsfjorden, about 2.5 kilometres (1.6 mi) southwest of the island of Kvamsøya. It was established in 1876 and automated in 1979. The 10-metre (33 ft) tall tower sits at an elevation of 19.7 metres (65 ft) above sea level. The light emits white, red or green light, depending on direction, occulting twice every 10 seconds. The red cylindrical tower with lantern and gallery is attached to one corner of a 2+1⁄2-story white keeper's house. ### Answer: The light emits white, red or green light, depending on direction, occulting twice every 10 seconds.</s>

Who wrote the song Happy Birthday Darlin

"Happy Birthday Darlin'" is a song written by Chuck Howard, and recorded by American country music artist Conway Twitty. It was released in October 1979 as the third and final single from his album Cross Winds. The song was Twitty's 23rd number one on the country chart as solo artist. The single stayed at number one for three weeks and spent a total of 11 weeks on the country chart. Content The song begins with the spoken lyric "Hello, Darlin'," calling back to Twitty's 1970 hit of the same name that starts in the same way. The song otherwise tells a narrative through the eyes of a man who vows to right a number of wrongs in his relationship. Here, instead of giving his wife a present for her birthday, he vows to take some things away, such as suspicion, lonely moments, "so-so kisses" and doubt, replacing them with such things as faith and companionship. In the end, the man confidently says that his wife can tell friends, "He didn’t give me anything but he sure took a lot of things away."

Happy Birthday Darlin' is a song written by Chuck Howard, and recorded by American country music artist Conway Twitty. It was released in October 1979 as the third and final single from his album Cross Winds. The song was Twitty's 23rd number one on the country chart as solo artist. The single stayed at number one for three weeks and spent a total of 11 weeks on the country chart. The song begins with the spoken lyric Hello, Darlin' calling back to Twitty's 1970 hit of the same name that starts in the same way. The song otherwise tells a narrative through the eyes of a man who vows to right a number of wrongs in his relationship. Here, instead of giving his wife a present for her birthday, he vows to take some things away, such as suspicion, lonely moments, "so-so kisses" and doubt, replacing them with such things as faith and companionship. In the end, the man confidently says that his wife can tell friends, "He didn’t give me anything but he sure took a lot of things away."

summarization

### Instruction: Who wrote the song Happy Birthday Darlin ### Context: "Happy Birthday Darlin'" is a song written by Chuck Howard, and recorded by American country music artist Conway Twitty. It was released in October 1979 as the third and final single from his album Cross Winds. The song was Twitty's 23rd number one on the country chart as solo artist. The single stayed at number one for three weeks and spent a total of 11 weeks on the country chart. Content The song begins with the spoken lyric "Hello, Darlin'," calling back to Twitty's 1970 hit of the same name that starts in the same way. The song otherwise tells a narrative through the eyes of a man who vows to right a number of wrongs in his relationship. Here, instead of giving his wife a present for her birthday, he vows to take some things away, such as suspicion, lonely moments, "so-so kisses" and doubt, replacing them with such things as faith and companionship. In the end, the man confidently says that his wife can tell friends, "He didn’t give me anything but he sure took a lot of things away." ### Answer: Happy Birthday Darlin' is a song written by Chuck Howard, and recorded by American country music artist Conway Twitty. It was released in October 1979 as the third and final single from his album Cross Winds. The song was Twitty's 23rd number one on the country chart as solo artist. The single stayed at number one for three weeks and spent a total of 11 weeks on the country chart. The song begins with the spoken lyric Hello, Darlin' calling back to Twitty's 1970 hit of the same name that starts in the same way. The song otherwise tells a narrative through the eyes of a man who vows to right a number of wrongs in his relationship. Here, instead of giving his wife a present for her birthday, he vows to take some things away, such as suspicion, lonely moments, "so-so kisses" and doubt, replacing them with such things as faith and companionship. In the end, the man confidently says that his wife can tell friends, "He didn’t give me anything but he sure took a lot of things away."</s>

From the text below, tell me where Mount Balinhard got its name.

Mount Balinhard is a summit in Alberta, Canada. Mount Balinhard was named for a title bestowed on the Earl of Southesk.

Balinhard was a title bestowed on the Earl of Southesk, from which Mount Balinhard gets its name.

summarization

### Instruction: From the text below, tell me where Mount Balinhard got its name. ### Context: Mount Balinhard is a summit in Alberta, Canada. Mount Balinhard was named for a title bestowed on the Earl of Southesk. ### Answer: Balinhard was a title bestowed on the Earl of Southesk, from which Mount Balinhard gets its name.</s>