Datasets:

Tawkat

/

medmcqa

like 0

62fa6f78-1964-4249-974b-6fcbbd7fc9ba

Which of the following statements is true regarding H I N1 Influenza?

Pregnant woman with sore throat can be staed immediately on oseltamivir without diagnostic testing under category B

People on long-term steroids cannot receive Os-eltam ivir

Category B concerns with low risk cases

Category B patients have to undergo immediate testing

multi

Ans: A. Pregnant woman with sore throat can be staed immediately on oseltamivir without diagnostic testing under category B(Ref. http..ilviww.molifir.nic.in/WriteReadData/1892s/ 804456402Categorisation.pcifi)Pregnant woman with sore throat can be staed immediately on oseltamivir without diagnostic testing under category B.Drug of choice - Oseltamivir (given for 10 days post-exposure). Priority groups (in order) for Influenza vaccinesPregnant womenHealthy young childrenAge >6 months with chronic medical conditionsHealthy adults 49-65 years15-49 years healthy young adultsHealthy adults > 65 years

Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 62fa6f78-1964-4249-974b-6fcbbd7fc9baquestion: Which of the following statements is true regarding H I N1 Influenza?opa: Pregnant woman with sore throat can be staed immediately on oseltamivir without diagnostic testing under category Bopb: People on long-term steroids cannot receive Os-eltam iviropc: Category B concerns with low risk casesopd: Category B patients have to undergo immediate testingcop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Ans: A. Pregnant woman with sore throat can be staed immediately on oseltamivir without diagnostic testing under category B(Ref. http..ilviww.molifir.nic.in/WriteReadData/1892s/ 804456402Categorisation.pcifi)Pregnant woman with sore throat can be staed immediately on oseltamivir without diagnostic testing under category B.Drug of choice - Oseltamivir (given for 10 days post-exposure). Priority groups (in order) for Influenza vaccinesPregnant womenHealthy young childrenAge >6 months with chronic medical conditionsHealthy adults 49-65 years15-49 years healthy young adultsHealthy adults > 65 yearssubject_name: Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

6ccd8adb-af24-4e58-82a1-9219dfa37057

A patient who was on ventilator and being ventilated for past few days, suddenly pulls out the endotracheal tube. What is the next step of management?

Assess the patient, give bag and mask ventilation and look for spontaneous breathing

Sta bag and mask ventilation and reintubate

Sedate and reintubate

Make him sit and do physiotherapy

multi

Ans. a. Assess the patient, give bag and mask ventilation and look for spontaneous breathingIn self-extubation, assess the patient, give bag and mask ventilation and look for spontaneous breathing.Unplanned ExtubationUnplanned extubation of mechanically ventilated patients is relatively commonSelf-extubation refers to the patient's action, who deliberately removes the endotracheal tube (MC type of unplanned extubation, typically occur at night)Accidental extubation is attributed either to personnel's inappropriate manipulation of the tube during patient care or to a non-purposeful patient's action, e.g. coughing (mostly occur in the morning) Risk Factors for Unplanned ExtubationPatient factorsStaff factorsMaleDeliriumLight sedationDifficulty in securing tube (e g. facial swelling, facial burns)Previous unplanned extubationJunior staffNurse-to-patient ratioInadequately secured endotracheal tubeand/or checks

Anaesthesia

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 6ccd8adb-af24-4e58-82a1-9219dfa37057question: A patient who was on ventilator and being ventilated for past few days, suddenly pulls out the endotracheal tube. What is the next step of management?opa: Assess the patient, give bag and mask ventilation and look for spontaneous breathingopb: Sta bag and mask ventilation and reintubateopc: Sedate and reintubateopd: Make him sit and do physiotherapycop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Ans. a. Assess the patient, give bag and mask ventilation and look for spontaneous breathingIn self-extubation, assess the patient, give bag and mask ventilation and look for spontaneous breathing.Unplanned ExtubationUnplanned extubation of mechanically ventilated patients is relatively commonSelf-extubation refers to the patient's action, who deliberately removes the endotracheal tube (MC type of unplanned extubation, typically occur at night)Accidental extubation is attributed either to personnel's inappropriate manipulation of the tube during patient care or to a non-purposeful patient's action, e.g. coughing (mostly occur in the morning) Risk Factors for Unplanned ExtubationPatient factorsStaff factorsMaleDeliriumLight sedationDifficulty in securing tube (e g. facial swelling, facial burns)Previous unplanned extubationJunior staffNurse-to-patient ratioInadequately secured endotracheal tubeand/or checkssubject_name: Anaesthesiatopic_name: None

yes

7f0270fd-7d45-43ec-b77e-0038115bb845

A mother is Hbs Ag positive and anti Hbe Ag positive. Risk of transmission of Hep. B in child is:

20%

50%

0%

90%

single

Before answering these questions lets first discuss hepatitis in brief. Maternal infection: The acute infection is manifested by flu like illness as malaise, anorexia, nausea and vomiting. In majority, it remains asymptomatic. Jaundice is rare and fever is uncommon. Clinical course (HBV): Nearly 90–95% of patients clear the infection and have full recovery. 1% develop fulminant hepatitis resulting massive hepatic necrosis. 10-15% become chronic and 10% of these chronic cases suffer from chronic active hepatitis, cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma. Diagnosis is confirmed by serological detection of HBsAg, HBeAg (denote high infectivity) and antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg) and HBV DNA titer (107–1011). Screening: All pregnant women should be screened for HBV infection at first antenatal visit and it should be repeated during the third trimester for ‘high risk’ groups (intravenous drug abusers, sexual promiscuity, hemophilics, patients on hemodialysis or having multiple sex partners). Hepatitis C (HCV): It is recognized as the major cause of non-A, non-B hepatitis worldwide and is the leading cause of transfusion associated hepatitis. Transmission is mainly blood borne and to a lesser extent by faecal-oral route. It is responsible for chronic active hepatitis and hepatic failure. Perinatal transmission (10–40%) is high when coinfected with HIV and HBV. Detection is by antibody to HCV by EIA, which develops usually late in the infection. Confirmation is done by recombinant immunoblot assay (RIBA-3). Chronic carrier state is present. Breastfeeding is not contraindicated. Hepatitis D (HDV): It is seen in patients infected with HBV either as a co-infection or super infection. Perinatal transmission is known. Hepatitis E (HEV): Hepatitis E is the most important cause of non-A, non-B hepatitis in developing countries like India. Chronic carrier state is present. Perinatal transmission is uncommon. Maternal mortality is very high (15–20%).

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 7f0270fd-7d45-43ec-b77e-0038115bb845question: A mother is Hbs Ag positive and anti Hbe Ag positive. Risk of transmission of Hep. B in child is:opa: 20%opb: 50%opc: 0%opd: 90%cop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Before answering these questions lets first discuss hepatitis in brief. Maternal infection: The acute infection is manifested by flu like illness as malaise, anorexia, nausea and vomiting. In majority, it remains asymptomatic. Jaundice is rare and fever is uncommon. Clinical course (HBV): Nearly 90–95% of patients clear the infection and have full recovery. 1% develop fulminant hepatitis resulting massive hepatic necrosis. 10-15% become chronic and 10% of these chronic cases suffer from chronic active hepatitis, cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma. Diagnosis is confirmed by serological detection of HBsAg, HBeAg (denote high infectivity) and antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg) and HBV DNA titer (107–1011). Screening: All pregnant women should be screened for HBV infection at first antenatal visit and it should be repeated during the third trimester for ‘high risk’ groups (intravenous drug abusers, sexual promiscuity, hemophilics, patients on hemodialysis or having multiple sex partners). Hepatitis C (HCV): It is recognized as the major cause of non-A, non-B hepatitis worldwide and is the leading cause of transfusion associated hepatitis. Transmission is mainly blood borne and to a lesser extent by faecal-oral route. It is responsible for chronic active hepatitis and hepatic failure. Perinatal transmission (10–40%) is high when coinfected with HIV and HBV. Detection is by antibody to HCV by EIA, which develops usually late in the infection. Confirmation is done by recombinant immunoblot assay (RIBA-3). Chronic carrier state is present. Breastfeeding is not contraindicated. Hepatitis D (HDV): It is seen in patients infected with HBV either as a co-infection or super infection. Perinatal transmission is known. Hepatitis E (HEV): Hepatitis E is the most important cause of non-A, non-B hepatitis in developing countries like India. Chronic carrier state is present. Perinatal transmission is uncommon. Maternal mortality is very high (15–20%).subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

fb79561d-8beb-4a31-aaa5-9350e20b0caa

Steps of intubation - arrange in sequence:- a. Head extension and flexion of neck b. Introduction of laryngoscope c. Inflation of cuff d. Check breath sounds with stethoscope e. fixation of the tube to prevent dislodgement

ABCDE

DBCEA

ACBED

CBAED

multi

For intubation: 1st step: Morning sniffing position: extension of atlanto-occipital joint and flexion of neck. 2nd step: Introduction of laryngoscope 3rd step: Push the tongue away, visualize the epiglottis, aryepiglottic fold, hinge the tip of laryngoscope with aryepiglottic fold and lift the laryngoscope to visualize the glottic opening. 4th step: Introduce ETT and inflate the cuff 5th check for bilateral breath sound FIXATION of the ETT.

Anaesthesia

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: fb79561d-8beb-4a31-aaa5-9350e20b0caaquestion: Steps of intubation - arrange in sequence:- a. Head extension and flexion of neck b. Introduction of laryngoscope c. Inflation of cuff d. Check breath sounds with stethoscope e. fixation of the tube to prevent dislodgementopa: ABCDEopb: DBCEAopc: ACBEDopd: CBAEDcop: 0choice_type: multiexp: For intubation: 1st step: Morning sniffing position: extension of atlanto-occipital joint and flexion of neck. 2nd step: Introduction of laryngoscope 3rd step: Push the tongue away, visualize the epiglottis, aryepiglottic fold, hinge the tip of laryngoscope with aryepiglottic fold and lift the laryngoscope to visualize the glottic opening. 4th step: Introduce ETT and inflate the cuff 5th check for bilateral breath sound FIXATION of the ETT.subject_name: Anaesthesiatopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

3a13e9bb-48ab-46c1-9d50-e1612840d922

A patient went into shock immediately after normal delivery, likely cause:

Amniotic fluid embolism

PPH

Uterine inversion

Eclampsia

single

Friends this is one of those questions where we can derive the answer by excluding other options as very little information has been provided to us. Sudden post partum collapse – may be seen in all the four cases viz – amniotic fluid embolism, PPH, uterine inversion and eclampsia. But in case of PPH antecedent H/O excessive blood loss, in eclampsia – H/O antecedent convulsions and in amniotic fluid embolism – H/O abrupt onset of respiratory distress before collapse should be present, which is not given in the question so these options are being excluded. The clinical picture of acute inversion occurring in the third stage of labour is characterised by shock and haemorrhage, the shock being out of proportion to the bleeding. Since this a problem which occurs due to mismanaged third stage of labour, patient doesnot have any complain in the antenatal period or during labour. Uterine inversion – “It should be suspected whenever a woman has unexplained postpartum collapse.” Textbook of Obs, Sheila Balakrishnan, p 489

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 3a13e9bb-48ab-46c1-9d50-e1612840d922question: A patient went into shock immediately after normal delivery, likely cause:opa: Amniotic fluid embolismopb: PPHopc: Uterine inversionopd: Eclampsiacop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Friends this is one of those questions where we can derive the answer by excluding other options as very little information has been provided to us. Sudden post partum collapse – may be seen in all the four cases viz – amniotic fluid embolism, PPH, uterine inversion and eclampsia. But in case of PPH antecedent H/O excessive blood loss, in eclampsia – H/O antecedent convulsions and in amniotic fluid embolism – H/O abrupt onset of respiratory distress before collapse should be present, which is not given in the question so these options are being excluded. The clinical picture of acute inversion occurring in the third stage of labour is characterised by shock and haemorrhage, the shock being out of proportion to the bleeding. Since this a problem which occurs due to mismanaged third stage of labour, patient doesnot have any complain in the antenatal period or during labour. Uterine inversion – “It should be suspected whenever a woman has unexplained postpartum collapse.” Textbook of Obs, Sheila Balakrishnan, p 489subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

7697c864-514c-4a73-8ce4-ea6cf0d0b651

Sequential arrangement of fetal scans -

Growth scan

Triple marker

Anomalous Scan and NT scan

All

multi

Ans: D. AllThe NT scan must be done between 11 and 14 weeks pregnant, because this is when the base of baby's neck is still transparent. (The last day for scan is 13 weeks and 6 days pregnant.)Triple marker test is performed in pregnant women at the end of first trimester and the beginning of the second trimester.The anomaly scan, also sometimes called the anatomy scan, 20 week ultrasound, or level 2 ultrasound, is a pregnancy ultrasound performed between 18-22 weeksA growth scan is an ultrasound scan that determines whether your baby's growth is normal. Doctors typically recommend it for women during the third trimester of pregnancy; one of the reasons it is also a fetal growth scan between 28 weeks and 32 weeks of pregnancy.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 7697c864-514c-4a73-8ce4-ea6cf0d0b651question: Sequential arrangement of fetal scans -opa: Growth scanopb: Triple markeropc: Anomalous Scan and NT scanopd: Allcop: 3choice_type: multiexp: Ans: D. AllThe NT scan must be done between 11 and 14 weeks pregnant, because this is when the base of baby's neck is still transparent. (The last day for scan is 13 weeks and 6 days pregnant.)Triple marker test is performed in pregnant women at the end of first trimester and the beginning of the second trimester.The anomaly scan, also sometimes called the anatomy scan, 20 week ultrasound, or level 2 ultrasound, is a pregnancy ultrasound performed between 18-22 weeksA growth scan is an ultrasound scan that determines whether your baby's growth is normal. Doctors typically recommend it for women during the third trimester of pregnancy; one of the reasons it is also a fetal growth scan between 28 weeks and 32 weeks of pregnancy.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

1bf69f9a-987c-48fc-9356-d62d2148c3a6

Tracheal secretions should be suctioned for:

10-15 seconds

60 seconds

30 seconds

3 minutes

single

Ans. a. 10-15 seconds(Ref Current DiMMOCIC and Treatment Critical Care 3/e p255)Tracheal secretions should he suctioned limiting the time to less than 10-15 seconds. The patient should be preoxygenated with 100% oxygen for at least a minute, and the total suction time should be limited to no more than 10-15 seconds on each attempt.

Anaesthesia

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 1bf69f9a-987c-48fc-9356-d62d2148c3a6question: Tracheal secretions should be suctioned for:opa: 10-15 secondsopb: 60 secondsopc: 30 secondsopd: 3 minutescop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans. a. 10-15 seconds(Ref Current DiMMOCIC and Treatment Critical Care 3/e p255)Tracheal secretions should he suctioned limiting the time to less than 10-15 seconds. The patient should be preoxygenated with 100% oxygen for at least a minute, and the total suction time should be limited to no more than 10-15 seconds on each attempt.subject_name: Anaesthesiatopic_name: None

yes

e7f023ea-2147-47d3-9f2a-61fb60a900be

Which of these drugs is an antidote for fibrinolytic therapy?

Epsilon aminocaproic acid

Protamine

Heparin

Streptokinase

single

Answer- A. Epsilon aminocaproic acidEpsilon aminocaproic acid is an antidote for fibrinolytic therapy. Epsilon-aminocaproic qcid is a synthetic inhibitor of theplasmin-plasminogen system. It is the only potent antifibrinolylic agent, which is commercially available."Aminocaproic acid is a lysine analog that competes for lysine binding sites on plasminogen and plasmin, blocking theinteraction of plasmin with fibrin.Fibrinolytic overdose - Epsilon Amino Caproic Acid (EACA)

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: e7f023ea-2147-47d3-9f2a-61fb60a900bequestion: Which of these drugs is an antidote for fibrinolytic therapy?opa: Epsilon aminocaproic acidopb: Protamineopc: Heparinopd: Streptokinasecop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Answer- A. Epsilon aminocaproic acidEpsilon aminocaproic acid is an antidote for fibrinolytic therapy. Epsilon-aminocaproic qcid is a synthetic inhibitor of theplasmin-plasminogen system. It is the only potent antifibrinolylic agent, which is commercially available."Aminocaproic acid is a lysine analog that competes for lysine binding sites on plasminogen and plasmin, blocking theinteraction of plasmin with fibrin.Fibrinolytic overdose - Epsilon Amino Caproic Acid (EACA)subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

17d49a43-a8cf-43c9-9c9e-70a42e741af1

To check objective pain response, which is best used method

Facial pain scale

Knee jerk reflex

H - Reflex

R III Reflex

single

Physiology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 17d49a43-a8cf-43c9-9c9e-70a42e741af1question: To check objective pain response, which is best used methodopa: Facial pain scaleopb: Knee jerk reflexopc: H - Reflexopd: R III Reflexcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Physiologytopic_name: None

yes

099ab3bb-253b-41e1-8250-c41d92781148

The following test may be abnormal in disseminated intravascular coagulation except:

Prothrombin

Activated partial thromboplastin time

D-timer levels

Clot solubility.

multi

Laboratory findings in case of DIC are: The platelet count is low. Blood film shows the features of microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia. There is presence of schistocytes and fragmented red cells (helmet shaped) due to damage caused by trapping and passage through the fibrin thrombi. Prothrombin time, thrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time, are all prolonged. Plasma fibrinogen levels are reduced due to consumption in microvascular coagulation. Fibrin degradation products (FDPs) are raised due to secondary fibrinolysis. D-dimer levels are raised in DIC. Clot observation test (Weiner)—It is an useful bed side test. It can be repeated at 2–4 hours intervals. 5 ml of venous blood is placed in a 15 ml dry test tube and kept at 37°C. Usually, blood clot forms within 6-12 minutes. This test provides a rough idea of blood fibrinogen level. If the clotting time is less than 6 minutes, fibrinogen level is more than 150 mg percent. If no clot forms within 30 minutes, the fibrinogen level is probably less than 100 mg percent.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 099ab3bb-253b-41e1-8250-c41d92781148question: The following test may be abnormal in disseminated intravascular coagulation except:opa: Prothrombinopb: Activated partial thromboplastin timeopc: D-timer levelsopd: Clot solubility.cop: 3choice_type: multiexp: Laboratory findings in case of DIC are: The platelet count is low. Blood film shows the features of microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia. There is presence of schistocytes and fragmented red cells (helmet shaped) due to damage caused by trapping and passage through the fibrin thrombi. Prothrombin time, thrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time, are all prolonged. Plasma fibrinogen levels are reduced due to consumption in microvascular coagulation. Fibrin degradation products (FDPs) are raised due to secondary fibrinolysis. D-dimer levels are raised in DIC. Clot observation test (Weiner)—It is an useful bed side test. It can be repeated at 2–4 hours intervals. 5 ml of venous blood is placed in a 15 ml dry test tube and kept at 37°C. Usually, blood clot forms within 6-12 minutes. This test provides a rough idea of blood fibrinogen level. If the clotting time is less than 6 minutes, fibrinogen level is more than 150 mg percent. If no clot forms within 30 minutes, the fibrinogen level is probably less than 100 mg percent.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

19567e6c-e0f7-4201-816d-23b58786f586

Patient with PPF transfusion complaint of breathing difficulty, tachycardic, tachypnia, Had Batwing sign present in X-ray. What will be the possible reason?

Transfusion related lung injury

Due to overload of PPF

Acute renal tubular acidosis

Hemoglobinuria

single

Answer- B. Due to overload of PPFTransfusion associated circulatory overload (TACO) is an established, but grossly under diagnosed and underrepoed complication of blood transfusion.

Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 19567e6c-e0f7-4201-816d-23b58786f586question: Patient with PPF transfusion complaint of breathing difficulty, tachycardic, tachypnia, Had Batwing sign present in X-ray. What will be the possible reason?opa: Transfusion related lung injuryopb: Due to overload of PPFopc: Acute renal tubular acidosisopd: Hemoglobinuriacop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Answer- B. Due to overload of PPFTransfusion associated circulatory overload (TACO) is an established, but grossly under diagnosed and underrepoed complication of blood transfusion.subject_name: Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

b0c6997a-bf16-4f7c-8c44-7a3504e0131b

Which statements is true regarding VENTOUSE :

Minor scalp abrasions and subgaleal hematomas in new born are more frequent than forceps

Can be applied when foetal head is above the level of ischial spine

Maternal trauma is more frequent than forceps

Can not be used when fetal head is not fully rotated

multi

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: b0c6997a-bf16-4f7c-8c44-7a3504e0131bquestion: Which statements is true regarding VENTOUSE :opa: Minor scalp abrasions and subgaleal hematomas in new born are more frequent than forcepsopb: Can be applied when foetal head is above the level of ischial spineopc: Maternal trauma is more frequent than forcepsopd: Can not be used when fetal head is not fully rotatedcop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Nonesubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

3bd3eaf4-a529-4b2a-8d98-79249b580503

CLED is better medium than MacConkey medium for processing of urine samples

It differentiate LF from NLF Bacteria

Prevents swarming of proteus

Identifies pseudomonas

Allows staphylococcus,Streptococcus and candida to grow

multi

Answer- D. Allows staphylococcus,Streptococcus and candida to grow* CLED agar (cystine-lactose-electrolyte-deficient agar or medium) is a valuable non-inhibitorygrowth medium used in the isolation and differentiation ofurinary microbes* It suppos the growth of urinary pathogens and contaminants but prevents undue swarming of Proteus species due to its lack of electrolytes.

Microbiology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 3bd3eaf4-a529-4b2a-8d98-79249b580503question: CLED is better medium than MacConkey medium for processing of urine samplesopa: It differentiate LF from NLF Bacteriaopb: Prevents swarming of proteusopc: Identifies pseudomonasopd: Allows staphylococcus,Streptococcus and candida to growcop: 3choice_type: multiexp: Answer- D. Allows staphylococcus,Streptococcus and candida to grow* CLED agar (cystine-lactose-electrolyte-deficient agar or medium) is a valuable non-inhibitorygrowth medium used in the isolation and differentiation ofurinary microbes* It suppos the growth of urinary pathogens and contaminants but prevents undue swarming of Proteus species due to its lack of electrolytes.subject_name: Microbiologytopic_name: None

yes

b4c3fa06-01fe-4c3c-8521-25299a221d43

Most effective method of assessing breathing is by measuring:

Tidal volume

Respiratory rate

Alveolar ventilation

FEV 1

single

Physiology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: b4c3fa06-01fe-4c3c-8521-25299a221d43question: Most effective method of assessing breathing is by measuring:opa: Tidal volumeopb: Respiratory rateopc: Alveolar ventilationopd: FEV 1cop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Physiologytopic_name: None

yes

e6478418-d6bb-47d3-b31c-a19b3a149a6c

All are features of Neonatal Tetanus except –

Refusal to feed is common initial symptom

Caused by clostridium tetani

Usually occurs in 1st 2 days of life

Mortality is 50–75%.

multi

Neonatal Tetanus It is caused by clostridium tetani Clinical features Symptoms of neonatal tetanus starts by 5-15 days after birth, never in the first 2 days of life and rarely after the age of 2 weeks. (ft is commonly k/a as 811! day disease) Common initial symptoms are Excessive unexplained crying, Refusal of feeds, Apathy Prognosis —> Mortality rate varies from 50-75%.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: e6478418-d6bb-47d3-b31c-a19b3a149a6cquestion: All are features of Neonatal Tetanus except –opa: Refusal to feed is common initial symptomopb: Caused by clostridium tetaniopc: Usually occurs in 1st 2 days of lifeopd: Mortality is 50–75%.cop: 2choice_type: multiexp: Neonatal Tetanus It is caused by clostridium tetani Clinical features Symptoms of neonatal tetanus starts by 5-15 days after birth, never in the first 2 days of life and rarely after the age of 2 weeks. (ft is commonly k/a as 811! day disease) Common initial symptoms are Excessive unexplained crying, Refusal of feeds, Apathy Prognosis —> Mortality rate varies from 50-75%.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

a5d733b4-18d3-468c-8aaa-bbcb66cbb07e

Adverse effects of salbutamol are all except

Tremors

Tachycardia

Hypoglycemia

Hypokalemia

multi

Salbutamol is a beta 2 agonist. Adverse effects of beta 2 agonists: Tremors Tachycardia Tolerance Hypokalemia (by enhancing potassium uptake into muscles) Hypoxia Hyperglycemia (by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis) Note: Tolerance occurs to only long acting beta 2 agonists .

Pharmacology

AIIMS 2018

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: a5d733b4-18d3-468c-8aaa-bbcb66cbb07equestion: Adverse effects of salbutamol are all exceptopa: Tremorsopb: Tachycardiaopc: Hypoglycemiaopd: Hypokalemiacop: 2choice_type: multiexp: Salbutamol is a beta 2 agonist. Adverse effects of beta 2 agonists: Tremors Tachycardia Tolerance Hypokalemia (by enhancing potassium uptake into muscles) Hypoxia Hyperglycemia (by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis) Note: Tolerance occurs to only long acting beta 2 agonists .subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: AIIMS 2018

yes

bfc8d03e-6a47-44af-8883-a2786a23da19

The most common side effect of the oral administration of ampicillin is

Anaphylactic shock

Diarrhoea

Oral candidiasis

Renal failure

single

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: bfc8d03e-6a47-44af-8883-a2786a23da19question: The most common side effect of the oral administration of ampicillin isopa: Anaphylactic shockopb: Diarrhoeaopc: Oral candidiasisopd: Renal failurecop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

54d61676-f03f-4c52-a706-26481e10ec98

One of the most common side effects of phenytoin is

Gingival Hyperplasia

Gingival Necrosis

Dental stains

Hypertension

single

Dental

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 54d61676-f03f-4c52-a706-26481e10ec98question: One of the most common side effects of phenytoin isopa: Gingival Hyperplasiaopb: Gingival Necrosisopc: Dental stainsopd: Hypertensioncop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Dentaltopic_name: None

yes

3e76b92d-f48f-4a2f-98ed-d97420a71e53

All of the following are true about aspiration pneumonia except:

Aspiration of 20-30 mL of contents with pH < 2.5 is required

Fungal infection is the common cause of pneumonia

Posterior segment of the right upper lobe is most commonly affected in the recumbent position

Aspiration responsible for 5-15% of community acquired pneumonia

multi

Answer- B.Fungal infection is the common cause of pneumoniaMixed polymicrobial infection involving both aerobes and anaerobes are the common cause of aspiration pneumonia, not the fungal infection.Incidence: It is common and may account for up to 15% of patients with community-acquired pneumonia.Gastric pH of 2.5 or less with a gastric contents volume greater than 25 ml are critical values for causing aspiration pneumonia.The posterior segments of the upper lobe and apical segments of lower lobes are most commonly involved when aspiration occurs in a supine position.The basal segments of the lower lobes are usually affected in patients who aspirate in an upright or semirecumbent position.

Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 3e76b92d-f48f-4a2f-98ed-d97420a71e53question: All of the following are true about aspiration pneumonia except:opa: Aspiration of 20-30 mL of contents with pH < 2.5 is requiredopb: Fungal infection is the common cause of pneumoniaopc: Posterior segment of the right upper lobe is most commonly affected in the recumbent positionopd: Aspiration responsible for 5-15% of community acquired pneumoniacop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Answer- B.Fungal infection is the common cause of pneumoniaMixed polymicrobial infection involving both aerobes and anaerobes are the common cause of aspiration pneumonia, not the fungal infection.Incidence: It is common and may account for up to 15% of patients with community-acquired pneumonia.Gastric pH of 2.5 or less with a gastric contents volume greater than 25 ml are critical values for causing aspiration pneumonia.The posterior segments of the upper lobe and apical segments of lower lobes are most commonly involved when aspiration occurs in a supine position.The basal segments of the lower lobes are usually affected in patients who aspirate in an upright or semirecumbent position.subject_name: Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

99ebfb54-f46f-4053-8ef1-3c931d657bdb

Biopsy specimens removed for examinations are immediately placed in:

10% ethanol

10% formalin

Hydrogen peroxide

1% formalin

single

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 99ebfb54-f46f-4053-8ef1-3c931d657bdbquestion: Biopsy specimens removed for examinations are immediately placed in:opa: 10% ethanolopb: 10% formalinopc: Hydrogen peroxideopd: 1% formalincop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

2902efec-b01a-417c-94b9-406e94662f27

According to the new RNTCP guidelines, the following is not a suspect of tuberculosis

Confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient with cough of 2 weeks or more

HIV-positive patient with cough of any duration

Contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient with cough of any duration

Any individual having cough of duration 2 weeks or more

single

Ans: A. Confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient with cough of 2 weeks or more(Ref: Park 24/e p188-189, 23/e p178: 22/e p 168; htip://tbcindia.nic.in)A contact of confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient - TB suspect.If persistent cough of any duration (2 weeks is not required).TB suspects:Pulmonary TB Suspect:Defined as:Any individual having cough of >2 weeks.Contacts of smear positive TB patients having cough of any duration.Suspected/confirmed extra-pulmonary TB patient having cough of any duration.HIV-positive patient having cough of any duration.MDR-TB Suspect:Any TB patient who fails an RNTCP Category failing I or III treatment regimen.Any RNTCP Category II patient with sputum smear positive at end of 4th month of treatment or later.Close contacts of MDR-TB patients with smear positive pulmonary TB.

Social & Preventive Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 2902efec-b01a-417c-94b9-406e94662f27question: According to the new RNTCP guidelines, the following is not a suspect of tuberculosisopa: Confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient with cough of 2 weeks or moreopb: HIV-positive patient with cough of any durationopc: Contacts of sputum positive tuberculosis patient with cough of any durationopd: Any individual having cough of duration 2 weeks or morecop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans: A. Confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient with cough of 2 weeks or more(Ref: Park 24/e p188-189, 23/e p178: 22/e p 168; htip://tbcindia.nic.in)A contact of confirmed extra-pulmonary tuberculosis patient - TB suspect.If persistent cough of any duration (2 weeks is not required).TB suspects:Pulmonary TB Suspect:Defined as:Any individual having cough of >2 weeks.Contacts of smear positive TB patients having cough of any duration.Suspected/confirmed extra-pulmonary TB patient having cough of any duration.HIV-positive patient having cough of any duration.MDR-TB Suspect:Any TB patient who fails an RNTCP Category failing I or III treatment regimen.Any RNTCP Category II patient with sputum smear positive at end of 4th month of treatment or later.Close contacts of MDR-TB patients with smear positive pulmonary TB.subject_name: Social & Preventive Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

8a85e4e4-e42b-41a9-87e2-6f8e7105262c

Long term assessment of glucose control can be made by:

Estimation of post prandial blood sugar

Estimation of fasting blood sugar

Estimation of urine sugar level

Estimation of blood level of glycosylated hemoglobin

single

Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 8a85e4e4-e42b-41a9-87e2-6f8e7105262cquestion: Long term assessment of glucose control can be made by:opa: Estimation of post prandial blood sugaropb: Estimation of fasting blood sugaropc: Estimation of urine sugar levelopd: Estimation of blood level of glycosylated hemoglobincop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

e45de5c9-41f3-4aed-a77a-9a1cc3ee63db

Maternal moality ratio expressed in:-

Maternal death per 10,000 lives

Maternal death per 100,000 lives

Maternal death per 1,000,000 lives

Maternal death per 100 lives

single

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

AIIMS 2018

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: e45de5c9-41f3-4aed-a77a-9a1cc3ee63dbquestion: Maternal moality ratio expressed in:-opa: Maternal death per 10,000 livesopb: Maternal death per 100,000 livesopc: Maternal death per 1,000,000 livesopd: Maternal death per 100 livescop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: AIIMS 2018

yes

55093e71-8916-4f25-9524-9425d51455e1

A term gestation newborn developed respiratory distress. Which of the following would favour Respiratory distress syndrome (HIVID) ?

History of receiving antenatal corticosteroids

Air bronchogram on chest x–ray

Onset of distress after 6 hours of birth

Term birth

single

chest x-ray of an infant with RDS is characterized by atelectasis, air bronchograms, and a diffuse reticular-granular pattern commonly referred to as "ground glass". The chest x-ray may progress to a complete "white out" with severe disease. About other options Antenatal corticosteroids are given in pre-term (pre-mature) pregnancies not in term pregnancies. Further, antenatal corticosteroids are given to prevent RDS (HMD) --> after antenatal corticosteroids administration, risk of HMD is reduced. Respiratory distress occurs within first 6 hours. HMD occurs in pre-term neonate.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 55093e71-8916-4f25-9524-9425d51455e1question: A term gestation newborn developed respiratory distress. Which of the following would favour Respiratory distress syndrome (HIVID) ?opa: History of receiving antenatal corticosteroidsopb: Air bronchogram on chest x–rayopc: Onset of distress after 6 hours of birthopd: Term birthcop: 1choice_type: singleexp: chest x-ray of an infant with RDS is characterized by atelectasis, air bronchograms, and a diffuse reticular-granular pattern commonly referred to as "ground glass". The chest x-ray may progress to a complete "white out" with severe disease. About other options Antenatal corticosteroids are given in pre-term (pre-mature) pregnancies not in term pregnancies. Further, antenatal corticosteroids are given to prevent RDS (HMD) --> after antenatal corticosteroids administration, risk of HMD is reduced. Respiratory distress occurs within first 6 hours. HMD occurs in pre-term neonate.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

80066b5e-d621-4912-b7fd-f1e867a9c8d4

Renal feed for CKD patients-

Low calorie low volume

Low calorie high volume

High calorie low volume

High calorie high volume

single

Answer- C. High calorie low volumeLimiting fluids, eating a low-protein diet, limiting salt, potassium, phosphorous, and other electrolytes, and getting enough calories if you are losing weight.

Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 80066b5e-d621-4912-b7fd-f1e867a9c8d4question: Renal feed for CKD patients-opa: Low calorie low volumeopb: Low calorie high volumeopc: High calorie low volumeopd: High calorie high volumecop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Answer- C. High calorie low volumeLimiting fluids, eating a low-protein diet, limiting salt, potassium, phosphorous, and other electrolytes, and getting enough calories if you are losing weight.subject_name: Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

93d8bac0-76ae-4440-91c0-fa3b724bbc65

Which of the following will not decrease mother to child transmission of HIV?

Avoid breastfeeding

Vaginal delivery

Zidovudine given to mother antenataly and to neonate after bih

Vitamin A supplementation given to mother

single

Answer- B (Vaginal delievery)Vaginal delivery increases risk of mother to childhood transmission of HIV.'HIV can be transmitted through breast milk, avoiding breast feeding decreases the mother to child transmission of HIV.'

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 93d8bac0-76ae-4440-91c0-fa3b724bbc65question: Which of the following will not decrease mother to child transmission of HIV?opa: Avoid breastfeedingopb: Vaginal deliveryopc: Zidovudine given to mother antenataly and to neonate after bihopd: Vitamin A supplementation given to mothercop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Answer- B (Vaginal delievery)Vaginal delivery increases risk of mother to childhood transmission of HIV.'HIV can be transmitted through breast milk, avoiding breast feeding decreases the mother to child transmission of HIV.'subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

1f93c541-baaf-40f2-bf91-31be29732da2

Treatment of choice for anaphylactic shock is:

Adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000 solution by intramuscular route

Adrenaline 1 mL of 1:10000 by intravenous route

Atropine 3 mg intravenously

Adenosine 12 mg intravenously

single

DOC is adrenaline.Route is intramuscular > subcutaneous.Dose: 0.5 ml of 1:1000(1mg/ml solution).This dose is repeated once gain within 10 minutes.If it's still not improving; then intravenous 1:10,000 dose is given.

Pharmacology

AIIMS 2017

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 1f93c541-baaf-40f2-bf91-31be29732da2question: Treatment of choice for anaphylactic shock is:opa: Adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000 solution by intramuscular routeopb: Adrenaline 1 mL of 1:10000 by intravenous routeopc: Atropine 3 mg intravenouslyopd: Adenosine 12 mg intravenouslycop: 0choice_type: singleexp: DOC is adrenaline.Route is intramuscular > subcutaneous.Dose: 0.5 ml of 1:1000(1mg/ml solution).This dose is repeated once gain within 10 minutes.If it's still not improving; then intravenous 1:10,000 dose is given.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: AIIMS 2017

yes

b8621196-05ba-414e-a112-0b48be3fcd7c

Which of the following diuretic can be given in mild to moderate hypeension?

Potassium sparing diuretic

Osmotic diuretic

Thiazide diuretic

Loop diuretic

single

Ans: C. Thiazide diureticThiazide diuretics :Given in mild to moderate hypeension.Low-dose thiazide diuretics used alone or in combination with other antihypeensive drugs.Safe, efficacious, inexpensive & reduce clinical events. MOA:Inhibits Na/Cl- pump in DCT a Increases sodium excretion.In long term - Acts as vasodilators.Provide additive blood pressure-lowering effects (On combination with beta blockers, ACE-I, ARBs).Drug of Choicein HypeensionConditionDrug of ChoiceHypeensionThiazidesHypeension with BPHPrazosinHypeension with diabetes mellitusACE inhibitorsHypeension with ischemic hea disease (angina)Beta-blockersHypeension with chronic kidney diseaseACE inhibitorsHypeension in pregnancyAlpha-methyldopaHypeensive emergenciesNicardipine + EsmololHypeensive emergencies in cheese reactionPhentolamineHypeensive emergencies in clonidine withdrawalPhentolamineHypeensive emergencies in aoic dissectionNitroprusside + EsmololHypeensive emergencies in pregnancyLabetalol(Ref: Harrison 19/e p1623).

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: b8621196-05ba-414e-a112-0b48be3fcd7cquestion: Which of the following diuretic can be given in mild to moderate hypeension?opa: Potassium sparing diureticopb: Osmotic diureticopc: Thiazide diureticopd: Loop diureticcop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ans: C. Thiazide diureticThiazide diuretics :Given in mild to moderate hypeension.Low-dose thiazide diuretics used alone or in combination with other antihypeensive drugs.Safe, efficacious, inexpensive & reduce clinical events. MOA:Inhibits Na/Cl- pump in DCT a Increases sodium excretion.In long term - Acts as vasodilators.Provide additive blood pressure-lowering effects (On combination with beta blockers, ACE-I, ARBs).Drug of Choicein HypeensionConditionDrug of ChoiceHypeensionThiazidesHypeension with BPHPrazosinHypeension with diabetes mellitusACE inhibitorsHypeension with ischemic hea disease (angina)Beta-blockersHypeension with chronic kidney diseaseACE inhibitorsHypeension in pregnancyAlpha-methyldopaHypeensive emergenciesNicardipine + EsmololHypeensive emergencies in cheese reactionPhentolamineHypeensive emergencies in clonidine withdrawalPhentolamineHypeensive emergencies in aoic dissectionNitroprusside + EsmololHypeensive emergencies in pregnancyLabetalol(Ref: Harrison 19/e p1623).subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

796e190d-09a8-4eef-98a4-26eecd5b7de7

Data about recent trends of immunization in the community can be found by:

Sample registration system

District level health survey

Rural survey

Census data

single

Ans: B. District level health survey(Ref Park's 22/e p786)District Level Health Survey - Objectives:Coverage of ante-natal, natal and post-natal checkups and child immunization.Propoion of institutional/safe deliveries.JSY beneficiaries.Contraceptive prevalence rates.Unmet need for contraceptives - Spacing & limiting.Awareness about I/ STI and HIV/AIDS.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW), Government of India, has included the Clinical, Anthropometric and Biochemical (CAB) component for data collection in the District Level Household Survey (DLHS)-4.

Social & Preventive Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 796e190d-09a8-4eef-98a4-26eecd5b7de7question: Data about recent trends of immunization in the community can be found by:opa: Sample registration systemopb: District level health surveyopc: Rural surveyopd: Census datacop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Ans: B. District level health survey(Ref Park's 22/e p786)District Level Health Survey - Objectives:Coverage of ante-natal, natal and post-natal checkups and child immunization.Propoion of institutional/safe deliveries.JSY beneficiaries.Contraceptive prevalence rates.Unmet need for contraceptives - Spacing & limiting.Awareness about I/ STI and HIV/AIDS.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW), Government of India, has included the Clinical, Anthropometric and Biochemical (CAB) component for data collection in the District Level Household Survey (DLHS)-4.subject_name: Social & Preventive Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

f6bb3faa-6ccb-4838-a2d9-1ae2f2d63e7d

Which type of oral candidiasis does not presents with white patch?

Chronic atrophic candidiasis

Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

Pseudomembranous candidiasis

single

Ans: A. Chronic atrophic candidiasisChronic erythematous (atrophic) candidiasis appears as a red, raw-looking lesion instead of a white patch seen in all other types.Erythematous (atrophic) candidiasis:Appears as a red, raw-looking lesion.Subtypes of erythematous candidiasis:Denture-related stomatitis, angular stomatitis, median rhomboid glossitis & antibiotic-induced stomatitis.Since they are commonly erythematous/atrophic.Precede pseudomembrane formation,.Left when membrane is removed, or arise de novo.Tongue:Loss of lingual papillae, leaving a smooth area on tongue.Occurs on dorsum of tongue in long-term coicosteroids or antibiotic patient.But occasionally it can occur after only a few days of using a topical antibiotic.This is usually termed 'antibiotic sore mouth/stomatitis' because it is commonly painful as well as red.

Skin

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: f6bb3faa-6ccb-4838-a2d9-1ae2f2d63e7dquestion: Which type of oral candidiasis does not presents with white patch?opa: Chronic atrophic candidiasisopb: Chronic hyperplastic candidiasisopc: Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasisopd: Pseudomembranous candidiasiscop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans: A. Chronic atrophic candidiasisChronic erythematous (atrophic) candidiasis appears as a red, raw-looking lesion instead of a white patch seen in all other types.Erythematous (atrophic) candidiasis:Appears as a red, raw-looking lesion.Subtypes of erythematous candidiasis:Denture-related stomatitis, angular stomatitis, median rhomboid glossitis & antibiotic-induced stomatitis.Since they are commonly erythematous/atrophic.Precede pseudomembrane formation,.Left when membrane is removed, or arise de novo.Tongue:Loss of lingual papillae, leaving a smooth area on tongue.Occurs on dorsum of tongue in long-term coicosteroids or antibiotic patient.But occasionally it can occur after only a few days of using a topical antibiotic.This is usually termed 'antibiotic sore mouth/stomatitis' because it is commonly painful as well as red.subject_name: Skintopic_name: None

yes

4e8f5ba7-452a-464f-a328-d8b96eafade6

A 5 years old child presented with continuous fever and features of sepsis with a BP of 90/60 mm Hg, Pulse rate 144/min and respiratory rate of 30/min. What is the initial fluid of choice for management?

10 mL/kg of 10% dextrose

10 mL/kg of hydroxyethyl starch

20 mL/kg of 0.45% normal saline

20 mL/kg of 0.9% normal saline

single

Ans: D : 20 mL/kg of 0.9% normal salineExplanation:(Ref: Ghai 8Ie p718)In hypovolemic or septicemic shock, replacement of intravascular volume by isotonic fluids is the main stay of treatment.Hence, normal saline resuscitation with 20 ml/kg boluses.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 4e8f5ba7-452a-464f-a328-d8b96eafade6question: A 5 years old child presented with continuous fever and features of sepsis with a BP of 90/60 mm Hg, Pulse rate 144/min and respiratory rate of 30/min. What is the initial fluid of choice for management?opa: 10 mL/kg of 10% dextroseopb: 10 mL/kg of hydroxyethyl starchopc: 20 mL/kg of 0.45% normal salineopd: 20 mL/kg of 0.9% normal salinecop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Ans: D : 20 mL/kg of 0.9% normal salineExplanation:(Ref: Ghai 8Ie p718)In hypovolemic or septicemic shock, replacement of intravascular volume by isotonic fluids is the main stay of treatment.Hence, normal saline resuscitation with 20 ml/kg boluses.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

ae0f40e1-2d9f-4d1a-a431-3062793ef007

The following is used in which procedure in gynecology?

Pap smear

Endometrial Biopsy

Cervical Biopsy

Vulval Biopsy

single

The image shown in question is of Ayre's spatula which is used in papsmear Sensitivity of the cervical cytology for the detection of CIN 2 or 3 ranged from 47% to 62% Errors occurred because of - Poor fixation on the glass slide, leading to air drying - Smear were thick and obscured by vaginal discharge, blood, or mucus. Liquid - based Cytology Liquid samples are processed to provide a uniform, thin layer of cervical cells without debris on a glass slide & this eliminates air drying. The cell sample is collected with an endocervical brush used in combination with a plastic spatula or with a plastic broom. The sample is rinsed in a l containing liquid alcohol-based preservative. Hence 80% to 90% of the cells are retrieved The cells are retrieved from the l by passing the liquid through a filter. Recommendation : 2020 Novaks For women 21 to 29 years Screening with cytology every 3 year From 30 to 65 years Co - testing with conventional cytology and high - risk HPV testing every 5 years Or Cytology alone every 3 years are appropriate alternatives After the age of 65 it is Discontinue screening when 3 negative cytology results or 2 negative co test in the previous 10 years

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: ae0f40e1-2d9f-4d1a-a431-3062793ef007question: The following is used in which procedure in gynecology?opa: Pap smearopb: Endometrial Biopsyopc: Cervical Biopsyopd: Vulval Biopsycop: 0choice_type: singleexp: The image shown in question is of Ayre's spatula which is used in papsmear Sensitivity of the cervical cytology for the detection of CIN 2 or 3 ranged from 47% to 62% Errors occurred because of - Poor fixation on the glass slide, leading to air drying - Smear were thick and obscured by vaginal discharge, blood, or mucus. Liquid - based Cytology Liquid samples are processed to provide a uniform, thin layer of cervical cells without debris on a glass slide & this eliminates air drying. The cell sample is collected with an endocervical brush used in combination with a plastic spatula or with a plastic broom. The sample is rinsed in a l containing liquid alcohol-based preservative. Hence 80% to 90% of the cells are retrieved The cells are retrieved from the l by passing the liquid through a filter. Recommendation : 2020 Novaks For women 21 to 29 years Screening with cytology every 3 year From 30 to 65 years Co - testing with conventional cytology and high - risk HPV testing every 5 years Or Cytology alone every 3 years are appropriate alternatives After the age of 65 it is Discontinue screening when 3 negative cytology results or 2 negative co test in the previous 10 yearssubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

700fb2a4-66cc-4d8e-890d-c8d0840b287f

Tracheostomy will:

Increase dead air space

Increase respiratory resistance

Decrease respiratory work

Cause obstruction in respiration

single

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 700fb2a4-66cc-4d8e-890d-c8d0840b287fquestion: Tracheostomy will:opa: Increase dead air spaceopb: Increase respiratory resistanceopc: Decrease respiratory workopd: Cause obstruction in respirationcop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

64fefa75-a0d1-45da-a81b-961ed7565c9c

What is the drug of choice of Bacterial vaginosis in pregnancy

Metronidazole

Clindamycin

Erythromycin

Rovamycin

single

BV is a maldistribution of normal vaginal flora Lactobacilli are decreased, and Anaerobic bacteria species are overrepresented. Anaerobes include Gardnerella, Prevotella, Mobiluncus, and Bacteroides species; Atopobium vaginae; BV-associated bacteria, provisionally named BVAB1, BVAB2, and BVAB3. Pregnancy -DOC - Metronidazole 500 mg twice daily orally for 7 days; 0.75-percent gel, intra-vaginally, daily for 5 days Clindamycin 2% One applicator intra-vaginally nightly for 7 days. 300 mg orally twice daily for 7 days 100-mg clindamycin ovules Vaginally nightly for 3 days

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 64fefa75-a0d1-45da-a81b-961ed7565c9cquestion: What is the drug of choice of Bacterial vaginosis in pregnancyopa: Metronidazoleopb: Clindamycinopc: Erythromycinopd: Rovamycincop: 0choice_type: singleexp: BV is a maldistribution of normal vaginal flora Lactobacilli are decreased, and Anaerobic bacteria species are overrepresented. Anaerobes include Gardnerella, Prevotella, Mobiluncus, and Bacteroides species; Atopobium vaginae; BV-associated bacteria, provisionally named BVAB1, BVAB2, and BVAB3. Pregnancy -DOC - Metronidazole 500 mg twice daily orally for 7 days; 0.75-percent gel, intra-vaginally, daily for 5 days Clindamycin 2% One applicator intra-vaginally nightly for 7 days. 300 mg orally twice daily for 7 days 100-mg clindamycin ovules Vaginally nightly for 3 dayssubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

653d9209-e3ec-4f56-bb30-6e9f74c210df

Isolation period of measles:-

Onset of prodromal stage until 7th day of rash

Eruptive stage until 2 days of rash

Onset of prodromal phase until 3rd day of rash

Eruptive stage until 7th day of rash

single

Isolation period of measles is Onset of prodromal phase until 3rd day of rash. Maximum communicability occurs from onset of prodrome through the first 3-4 days of rash.Prodromal phase-stage last for 4 days(from 10th to 14th day of infection) characterized by Fever, Koplik spots , coryza, nasal discharge, redness .Incubation period of measles is 10 daysEruptive phase- Maculopapular rash appear after 4 days of fever (14day after infection)

Microbiology

AIIMS 2018

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 653d9209-e3ec-4f56-bb30-6e9f74c210dfquestion: Isolation period of measles:-opa: Onset of prodromal stage until 7th day of rashopb: Eruptive stage until 2 days of rashopc: Onset of prodromal phase until 3rd day of rashopd: Eruptive stage until 7th day of rashcop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Isolation period of measles is Onset of prodromal phase until 3rd day of rash. Maximum communicability occurs from onset of prodrome through the first 3-4 days of rash.Prodromal phase-stage last for 4 days(from 10th to 14th day of infection) characterized by Fever, Koplik spots , coryza, nasal discharge, redness .Incubation period of measles is 10 daysEruptive phase- Maculopapular rash appear after 4 days of fever (14day after infection)subject_name: Microbiologytopic_name: AIIMS 2018

yes

bc7fdabc-0c33-4e85-befe-0015ca601164

The hormone, which stimulates uterus contraction and lets down milk, is:

Progesterone

Prolactin

Prostaglandin

Oxytocin

single

Physiology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: bc7fdabc-0c33-4e85-befe-0015ca601164question: The hormone, which stimulates uterus contraction and lets down milk, is:opa: Progesteroneopb: Prolactinopc: Prostaglandinopd: Oxytocincop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Physiologytopic_name: None

yes

238019d8-3c6b-486e-9d00-fda1273d22e7

An un-immunized 13 months old child comes to you in OPD, according to the latest immunizations schedule, what vaccines will you advise??

OPV 3 doses, I IPV 3 Pentavalent and I measles

BCG, OPV 3 doses, 3 lPV, 3 Pentavalent and I measles

OPV 3 doses, I IPV 3 Pentavalent and 2 measles

OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-B

single

Ans: D. OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-BRef: ip. o rg/file s/I A P-imm unizution-sc he du le- 2 0 I 6- I P- 2 0 I 6-E p u b. p df* The latest schedule of immunization under NIS is as follows:* vNational Immunization Schedule (NIS) for Infants, children and Presnant women - - OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-B

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 238019d8-3c6b-486e-9d00-fda1273d22e7question: An un-immunized 13 months old child comes to you in OPD, according to the latest immunizations schedule, what vaccines will you advise??opa: OPV 3 doses, I IPV 3 Pentavalent and I measlesopb: BCG, OPV 3 doses, 3 lPV, 3 Pentavalent and I measlesopc: OPV 3 doses, I IPV 3 Pentavalent and 2 measlesopd: OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-Bcop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Ans: D. OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-BRef: ip. o rg/file s/I A P-imm unizution-sc he du le- 2 0 I 6- I P- 2 0 I 6-E p u b. p df* The latest schedule of immunization under NIS is as follows:* vNational Immunization Schedule (NIS) for Infants, children and Presnant women - - OPV 3 doses, 3 IPV 3 DPI : Hep-Bsubject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

b934e553-46ba-4692-a9cc-cc1ae26e7d4f

An 80 kg male patient presented to the emergency with hypotension and you have been instructed to sta him on an inotrope at a dose of 10 mcg/kg/min. Each 5 mL amp of the drug contains 200 mg drug. You choose 2 ampules of the drug and decide to mix it with saline to make a 250 mL solution. What should be the flow rate of the drug solution to maintain the BP of the patient (assuming 16 drops = 1 mL)?

4 drops/min

8 drops/min

10 drops/min

16 drops/min

single

Ans: B. 8 drops/minA dosing of 10 mgm/kg/min of drug is requiredWeight = 80 kgTotal dose required = 10x80 = 800 mgm/min = 0.8 mg/minNow two 5 mL ls each containing 200 mg is diluted to a 250 mL solution.i.e. 400 mg is mixed in 250 mLConcentration of solution: 1 mL = 400/250 = 1.6 mg/mLNow, 1 mL 16 drops = 1.6 mg i.e. 16 drops contain 1.6 mgHence, 0.8 mg/min = 8 drops/min = 0.5 mL/min

Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: b934e553-46ba-4692-a9cc-cc1ae26e7d4fquestion: An 80 kg male patient presented to the emergency with hypotension and you have been instructed to sta him on an inotrope at a dose of 10 mcg/kg/min. Each 5 mL amp of the drug contains 200 mg drug. You choose 2 ampules of the drug and decide to mix it with saline to make a 250 mL solution. What should be the flow rate of the drug solution to maintain the BP of the patient (assuming 16 drops = 1 mL)?opa: 4 drops/minopb: 8 drops/minopc: 10 drops/minopd: 16 drops/mincop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Ans: B. 8 drops/minA dosing of 10 mgm/kg/min of drug is requiredWeight = 80 kgTotal dose required = 10x80 = 800 mgm/min = 0.8 mg/minNow two 5 mL ls each containing 200 mg is diluted to a 250 mL solution.i.e. 400 mg is mixed in 250 mLConcentration of solution: 1 mL = 400/250 = 1.6 mg/mLNow, 1 mL 16 drops = 1.6 mg i.e. 16 drops contain 1.6 mgHence, 0.8 mg/min = 8 drops/min = 0.5 mL/minsubject_name: Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

6ec2995f-3b3d-495c-8768-98368ad2b08d

Which of the following PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) is removed first?

Gloves

Face shield

Gown

Mask

single

Personal protective equipment: PPE - protect the user against health or safety risks at work. Can include items such as safety helmets, gloves, eye- protection, high visibility clothing, safety footwear and safety harness. It can also include respiratory protective equipment (RPE) Order of removing PPE: Gloves Face shield Gown Mask

Surgery

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 6ec2995f-3b3d-495c-8768-98368ad2b08dquestion: Which of the following PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) is removed first?opa: Glovesopb: Face shieldopc: Gownopd: Maskcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Personal protective equipment: PPE - protect the user against health or safety risks at work. Can include items such as safety helmets, gloves, eye- protection, high visibility clothing, safety footwear and safety harness. It can also include respiratory protective equipment (RPE) Order of removing PPE: Gloves Face shield Gown Masksubject_name: Surgerytopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

c97369ec-b7b9-405c-ba9c-35cfdae8ce24

What is the maximum capacity of Bakri balloon which is used in post paum hemorrhage?

200 mL

300 in L

500 mL

1000 m L

multi

Ans: C. 500 mLBakri balloon:Inseed & inflated to tamponade endometrial cavity to stop bleeding.Initially staed by rapidly infusing at least 150 mL followed by fuher instillation over a few minutes for a total of 500 mL to arrest hemorrhage.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: c97369ec-b7b9-405c-ba9c-35cfdae8ce24question: What is the maximum capacity of Bakri balloon which is used in post paum hemorrhage?opa: 200 mLopb: 300 in Lopc: 500 mLopd: 1000 m Lcop: 2choice_type: multiexp: Ans: C. 500 mLBakri balloon:Inseed & inflated to tamponade endometrial cavity to stop bleeding.Initially staed by rapidly infusing at least 150 mL followed by fuher instillation over a few minutes for a total of 500 mL to arrest hemorrhage.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

f9be858f-ef2f-475e-9c82-ced530a1a623

A pregnant lady is diagnosed to be HBs Ag positive. Which of the following is the best way to prevent infection to the child:

Hepatitis vaccine to the child

Full course of Hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin to the child

Hepatitis B immunoglobulin to the mother

Hepatitis B immunization to mother

single

The best way to prevent infection in a child born to HBsAg positive mother is to give both active and passive immunization. Infants born to HBsAg positive mothers should be given hepatitis immunoglobulin (0.5 m 1/m) within 12 hours after birth. Along with this the first dose of hepatitis B recombinant vaccine is given. This is followed by hepatitis B vaccine at 1 and 6 months. Hepatitis B is not a contraindication for breastfeeding.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: f9be858f-ef2f-475e-9c82-ced530a1a623question: A pregnant lady is diagnosed to be HBs Ag positive. Which of the following is the best way to prevent infection to the child:opa: Hepatitis vaccine to the childopb: Full course of Hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin to the childopc: Hepatitis B immunoglobulin to the motheropd: Hepatitis B immunization to mothercop: 1choice_type: singleexp: The best way to prevent infection in a child born to HBsAg positive mother is to give both active and passive immunization. Infants born to HBsAg positive mothers should be given hepatitis immunoglobulin (0.5 m 1/m) within 12 hours after birth. Along with this the first dose of hepatitis B recombinant vaccine is given. This is followed by hepatitis B vaccine at 1 and 6 months. Hepatitis B is not a contraindication for breastfeeding.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

4067ea1a-de54-4762-a2d8-54acaaf54a18

Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis infection in pregnancy is true?:

Hepatitis B core antigen status is the most sensitive indicator of positive vertical transmission of disease

Hepatitis B is the most common form of hepatitis after blood transfusion

The proper treatment of infants born to infected mothers includes the administration of hepatitis B immune globulin as well as vaccine

Patients who develop chronic active hepatitis should undergo MTP

multi

Persons at increased risk of hepatitis B infection include homosexuals, abusers of intravenous drugs, healthcare personnel, and people who have received blood or blood products. However, because of intensive screening of blood for type B hepatitis, hepatitis C has become the major form of hepatitis after blood transfusion. (i.e. option b. incorrect). The most sensitive indicator of positive vertical transmission of disease is HBe antigen. (i.e. option a. incorrect). The proper treatment of infants born to infected mothers include administration of hepatitis B immune globulin as well as vaccine. Chronic acute hepatitis does not necessarily warrant therapeutic abortion (i.e. option d. incorrect). Fertility is decreased, but pregnancy may proceed on a normal course as long as steroid therapy is continued. Prematurity and fetal loss are increased, but there is no increase in malformations.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 4067ea1a-de54-4762-a2d8-54acaaf54a18question: Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis infection in pregnancy is true?:opa: Hepatitis B core antigen status is the most sensitive indicator of positive vertical transmission of diseaseopb: Hepatitis B is the most common form of hepatitis after blood transfusionopc: The proper treatment of infants born to infected mothers includes the administration of hepatitis B immune globulin as well as vaccineopd: Patients who develop chronic active hepatitis should undergo MTPcop: 2choice_type: multiexp: Persons at increased risk of hepatitis B infection include homosexuals, abusers of intravenous drugs, healthcare personnel, and people who have received blood or blood products. However, because of intensive screening of blood for type B hepatitis, hepatitis C has become the major form of hepatitis after blood transfusion. (i.e. option b. incorrect). The most sensitive indicator of positive vertical transmission of disease is HBe antigen. (i.e. option a. incorrect). The proper treatment of infants born to infected mothers include administration of hepatitis B immune globulin as well as vaccine. Chronic acute hepatitis does not necessarily warrant therapeutic abortion (i.e. option d. incorrect). Fertility is decreased, but pregnancy may proceed on a normal course as long as steroid therapy is continued. Prematurity and fetal loss are increased, but there is no increase in malformations.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

a13b245e-56b4-43cd-84fe-1c83ac2badeb

All of the following are true about augmentation of labor except:

Twin pregnancy precludes the use of oxytocin

Amniotomy decreases the need for oxytocin use

Methods of augmentation does not increase the risk of operational management

Associated with a risk of uterine hyper stimulation

multi

Answer- A. Twin pregnancy precludes the use of oxytocin'Augmentation of labour is the process of stimulating the uterus to increase the frequency, duration and intensity of contractions after the onset of spontaneous labour. It has commonly been used to treat delayed labour when poor uterine contractions are assessed to be the underlying cause. The traditional methods of labour augmentation have been with the use of intravenous ocytocin infusion and aificial rupture of the membranes (amniotomy).

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: a13b245e-56b4-43cd-84fe-1c83ac2badebquestion: All of the following are true about augmentation of labor except:opa: Twin pregnancy precludes the use of oxytocinopb: Amniotomy decreases the need for oxytocin useopc: Methods of augmentation does not increase the risk of operational managementopd: Associated with a risk of uterine hyper stimulationcop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Answer- A. Twin pregnancy precludes the use of oxytocin'Augmentation of labour is the process of stimulating the uterus to increase the frequency, duration and intensity of contractions after the onset of spontaneous labour. It has commonly been used to treat delayed labour when poor uterine contractions are assessed to be the underlying cause. The traditional methods of labour augmentation have been with the use of intravenous ocytocin infusion and aificial rupture of the membranes (amniotomy).subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

1acc9c45-12a8-4fd0-92e6-c7980c21348a

Which of the following parameters is used to determine the sensitivity of vaccine due to heat?

VVM

VMV

VCM

VMM

single

Ans: A. VVMRef: K Park, 23'd ed, pg. 110VVM (Vaccine Vial Monitor)VVM is a label containing a heat-sensitive material which is placed on a vaccine l to register cumulative heat exposure over time.It has outer blue circle and inner white square.

Social & Preventive Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 1acc9c45-12a8-4fd0-92e6-c7980c21348aquestion: Which of the following parameters is used to determine the sensitivity of vaccine due to heat?opa: VVMopb: VMVopc: VCMopd: VMMcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans: A. VVMRef: K Park, 23'd ed, pg. 110VVM (Vaccine Vial Monitor)VVM is a label containing a heat-sensitive material which is placed on a vaccine l to register cumulative heat exposure over time.It has outer blue circle and inner white square.subject_name: Social & Preventive Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

c628fd13-7ada-40eb-917a-1de334a5ee5b

The antidote for heparin is:

Penicillinase

Protamine sulphate

Pryosulphate

Potassium sulphate

single

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: c628fd13-7ada-40eb-917a-1de334a5ee5bquestion: The antidote for heparin is:opa: Penicillinaseopb: Protamine sulphateopc: Pryosulphateopd: Potassium sulphatecop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

29d2e3e3-3b3c-4b84-af19-e8e98c5e104e

The surgical registrar successfully performs a testicu!lar biopsy and hands over the specimen to the attend!ing nurse. The sister asks you how to send the speci!men to the pathologist. What fluid will you tell the sister to put the specimen in?

95% ethanol

Zenker's solution

Bouin's solution

10% formalin

single

Ans: C. Bouin's solution(Ref: Surgical Pathology by 'Rosai and Ackerman 9Ie p27; Upper Urinary tract Urothelial Carcinoma by Michael Grasso (2015)1p11)Testicular biopsy specimen should be put into Boitin's solution."Bouin's is a noncoagulate picrate solution which is routinely utilized to fix testicular biopsies because it preserves nuclear detail."

Pathology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 29d2e3e3-3b3c-4b84-af19-e8e98c5e104equestion: The surgical registrar successfully performs a testicu!lar biopsy and hands over the specimen to the attend!ing nurse. The sister asks you how to send the speci!men to the pathologist. What fluid will you tell the sister to put the specimen in?opa: 95% ethanolopb: Zenker's solutionopc: Bouin's solutionopd: 10% formalincop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ans: C. Bouin's solution(Ref: Surgical Pathology by 'Rosai and Ackerman 9Ie p27; Upper Urinary tract Urothelial Carcinoma by Michael Grasso (2015)1p11)Testicular biopsy specimen should be put into Boitin's solution."Bouin's is a noncoagulate picrate solution which is routinely utilized to fix testicular biopsies because it preserves nuclear detail."subject_name: Pathologytopic_name: None

yes

1badc5bb-d61a-48ea-9288-3754612f74a5

In a JubLeitter arca pith crude bih rate of 211, what would be the expected number of ANC registrations?

60

80

100

120

single

Ans. a. 60In a subcenter area with crude bih rate of 20, the expected number of ANC registrations should be approximately 55.Number of Expected Pregnancies per Year Expected no. of live-bihs (Y)/year= Bih rate (per 1000 population) x Population of the area/1000 Number of Expected Pregnancies per YearAs some pregnancies may not result in a live bih (i.e., aboions & stillbih may occur), the expected number of live bihs would be an under-estimation of the total number of pregnancies. Hence, a correction factor of 10% is required, i.e., add 10% to the figure obtained above.Total number of Expected Pregnancies Z = Y + 10% of YPopulation under the subcentre = 5000Bih rate = 20Expected no. of live-bihs (Y)/year = 20 x 5000/1000 = 100Total number of Expected Pregnancies Z = Y + 10% of Y =100 + 10% of 100 = 110Expected number of ANC registrations will be half of yearly calculation = 55

Social & Preventive Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 1badc5bb-d61a-48ea-9288-3754612f74a5question: In a JubLeitter arca pith crude bih rate of 211, what would be the expected number of ANC registrations?opa: 60opb: 80opc: 100opd: 120cop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans. a. 60In a subcenter area with crude bih rate of 20, the expected number of ANC registrations should be approximately 55.Number of Expected Pregnancies per Year Expected no. of live-bihs (Y)/year= Bih rate (per 1000 population) x Population of the area/1000 Number of Expected Pregnancies per YearAs some pregnancies may not result in a live bih (i.e., aboions & stillbih may occur), the expected number of live bihs would be an under-estimation of the total number of pregnancies. Hence, a correction factor of 10% is required, i.e., add 10% to the figure obtained above.Total number of Expected Pregnancies Z = Y + 10% of YPopulation under the subcentre = 5000Bih rate = 20Expected no. of live-bihs (Y)/year = 20 x 5000/1000 = 100Total number of Expected Pregnancies Z = Y + 10% of Y =100 + 10% of 100 = 110Expected number of ANC registrations will be half of yearly calculation = 55subject_name: Social & Preventive Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

b7dd1d97-3338-4b13-98f3-1b6c61c805b2

Which of the following is false about Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury?

Develops within 24 hours

Mostly seen after sepsis and cardiac surgeries

It's a cause of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema

Plasma is more likely to cause it than whole blood

multi

Ans: A. Develops within 24 hours(Ref Harrison 19/e 138e-5, 18/e p1217)Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI):MC cause of transfusion related fatalities.Cause:Usually results from transfusion of donor plasma.Risk factors:Smoking.Chronic alcohol useShockLiver surgery (transplantation).Symptoms development:During or within 6 hrs of transfusion.Develops symptoms of hypoxia (PaO2/FIO2 <300 mmHg).Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema signs including bilateral interstitial infiltrates on chest X-ray.

Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: b7dd1d97-3338-4b13-98f3-1b6c61c805b2question: Which of the following is false about Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury?opa: Develops within 24 hoursopb: Mostly seen after sepsis and cardiac surgeriesopc: It's a cause of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edemaopd: Plasma is more likely to cause it than whole bloodcop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Ans: A. Develops within 24 hours(Ref Harrison 19/e 138e-5, 18/e p1217)Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI):MC cause of transfusion related fatalities.Cause:Usually results from transfusion of donor plasma.Risk factors:Smoking.Chronic alcohol useShockLiver surgery (transplantation).Symptoms development:During or within 6 hrs of transfusion.Develops symptoms of hypoxia (PaO2/FIO2 <300 mmHg).Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema signs including bilateral interstitial infiltrates on chest X-ray.subject_name: Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

74a4b01c-7f65-4cdf-a9c8-5b0d6989171e

The skin of a patient undergoing radiotherapy will show after 2 weeks?

Erythema

Depigmentation

Radiation induced carcinomas

No change

single

Radiology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 74a4b01c-7f65-4cdf-a9c8-5b0d6989171equestion: The skin of a patient undergoing radiotherapy will show after 2 weeks?opa: Erythemaopb: Depigmentationopc: Radiation induced carcinomasopd: No changecop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Radiologytopic_name: None

yes

1cd85138-84f2-4c99-aede-bfd10b5ec9b9

Which of the following is true regarding blood transfusion of packed RBC?

Should be staed within 4 hours of receiving it from blood bank

Should be completed within 4 hours of receiving from blood bank

Wait till the patient is stable then transfuse, irrespective of any timing

Should be completed within 6 hours of receiving from blood bank

multi

18-19 G needle is used for blood transfusion 170-180 u pore filter is used Packed RBC's are stored at a temperature of 2-6? C. Hence, they should be rewarmed before use. Rewarming should be done within 30 minutes of collecting blood from blood bank Transfusion should be completed within 4 hrs of taking the blood from the blood bank FFP and cryoprecipitate are stored at -18 to -30? C. Transfusion with these factors should be staed ASAP as the factors are labile to heat and completed in 20 minutes

Pathology

AIIMS 2018

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 1cd85138-84f2-4c99-aede-bfd10b5ec9b9question: Which of the following is true regarding blood transfusion of packed RBC?opa: Should be staed within 4 hours of receiving it from blood bankopb: Should be completed within 4 hours of receiving from blood bankopc: Wait till the patient is stable then transfuse, irrespective of any timingopd: Should be completed within 6 hours of receiving from blood bankcop: 1choice_type: multiexp: 18-19 G needle is used for blood transfusion 170-180 u pore filter is used Packed RBC's are stored at a temperature of 2-6? C. Hence, they should be rewarmed before use. Rewarming should be done within 30 minutes of collecting blood from blood bank Transfusion should be completed within 4 hrs of taking the blood from the blood bank FFP and cryoprecipitate are stored at -18 to -30? C. Transfusion with these factors should be staed ASAP as the factors are labile to heat and completed in 20 minutessubject_name: Pathologytopic_name: AIIMS 2018

yes

b467f831-a659-457d-9132-1f205935bee8

In pregnancy, the most common cause of transient- diabetes insipidus is:

Severe preeclampsia

Hydramnios

Multiple pregnancy

IUGR

single

Diabetes insipidus can be caused by: Deficiency of antiduretic hormone               Resistance of ADH action                     ↓                                                                       ↓ Central diabetes insipidus                           Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. A transient form of DI occurs during pregnancy due to: – Excessive placental production of vasopressinase – Decreased hepatic clearance due to abnormal liver function there in case of: Preeclampsia Fatty liver Hepatitis. Approximately 60% of women with previously known DI worsen, 20% improve and 20% do not change during pregnancy. Worsening is attributed to excessive placental vasopressinase production. Some females with DI who develop placental insufficiency show DI improvement, which is attributed to decreased vasopressinase production by the damaged placenta. Symptoms: Polyuria (4-15 liters/day) Intense thirst particularly for ice cold fluids. Diagnosis: is confirmed by water deprivation test. Treatment: of choice intranasal L-deamino 8D arginine vasopressin (DDAVP) which is a synthetic analogue of ADH and is resistant to vasopressinase.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: b467f831-a659-457d-9132-1f205935bee8question: In pregnancy, the most common cause of transient- diabetes insipidus is:opa: Severe preeclampsiaopb: Hydramniosopc: Multiple pregnancyopd: IUGRcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Diabetes insipidus can be caused by: Deficiency of antiduretic hormone               Resistance of ADH action                     ↓                                                                       ↓ Central diabetes insipidus                           Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. A transient form of DI occurs during pregnancy due to: – Excessive placental production of vasopressinase – Decreased hepatic clearance due to abnormal liver function there in case of: Preeclampsia Fatty liver Hepatitis. Approximately 60% of women with previously known DI worsen, 20% improve and 20% do not change during pregnancy. Worsening is attributed to excessive placental vasopressinase production. Some females with DI who develop placental insufficiency show DI improvement, which is attributed to decreased vasopressinase production by the damaged placenta. Symptoms: Polyuria (4-15 liters/day) Intense thirst particularly for ice cold fluids. Diagnosis: is confirmed by water deprivation test. Treatment: of choice intranasal L-deamino 8D arginine vasopressin (DDAVP) which is a synthetic analogue of ADH and is resistant to vasopressinase.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

c6da06a8-62d4-49b1-9bce-e4584bbadc62

Vesicoureteric reflux is more common in –

Newborn females

Older girls

Older boys

Only during pregnancy

single

Clinical manifestations of VUR In primary reflux the average age ofpresentation is 2-3 years. Reflux is more common in females and it is usually detected earlier in females so we can say that reflux is present from birth but it is usually detected at 2-3 years of age but in feinales the age of detection is earlier. Features are - In primary reflux the patient usually presents with symptoms of pyelonephritis or cystitis. In secondary reflux manifestation of primary diseases are usually the presenting symptoms Reflux is the most common cause of pyelonephritis. It is seen in 30-50% of patients with pyelonephritis. It is present in over 75% of patients with radiological evidence of chronic pyelonephritis Diagnosis of Vesicoureteric reflux - The most useful process for conclusive diagnosis of reflux is micturating cystourethrogram. This will demonstrate the grade of reflux as well as urethral anatomy. The other useful technique for detecting vesicoureteric reflux is radionuclide imaging. It is extremaly sensitive at detecting reflux but do not demonstrate the anatomic detail seen with voiding cystourethro gram. So they are used for follow up after micturating cystourethrogram because they offer less radiation exposure.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: c6da06a8-62d4-49b1-9bce-e4584bbadc62question: Vesicoureteric reflux is more common in –opa: Newborn femalesopb: Older girlsopc: Older boysopd: Only during pregnancycop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Clinical manifestations of VUR In primary reflux the average age ofpresentation is 2-3 years. Reflux is more common in females and it is usually detected earlier in females so we can say that reflux is present from birth but it is usually detected at 2-3 years of age but in feinales the age of detection is earlier. Features are - In primary reflux the patient usually presents with symptoms of pyelonephritis or cystitis. In secondary reflux manifestation of primary diseases are usually the presenting symptoms Reflux is the most common cause of pyelonephritis. It is seen in 30-50% of patients with pyelonephritis. It is present in over 75% of patients with radiological evidence of chronic pyelonephritis Diagnosis of Vesicoureteric reflux - The most useful process for conclusive diagnosis of reflux is micturating cystourethrogram. This will demonstrate the grade of reflux as well as urethral anatomy. The other useful technique for detecting vesicoureteric reflux is radionuclide imaging. It is extremaly sensitive at detecting reflux but do not demonstrate the anatomic detail seen with voiding cystourethro gram. So they are used for follow up after micturating cystourethrogram because they offer less radiation exposure.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

5fecb77f-66cc-4650-8201-3759bda2a213

A drug X was given continuous intravenous infusion at 1.6 mg/min. The clearance of the drug is 640 mL/min. With a half-life of 1.8 hours, what would be the steady state plasma concentration of drug?

0.002 mg/mL

0.004 trig/mL

2.88 mg/mL

3.55 mg/mL

single

Answer- A. 0.002 mg/mLCpss is directly propoional to the dose rate & inversely propoional to the clearance of drug.Cpss = Dose rate/clearanceDose rate= 1.6 mgiml; Clearance= 640 ml/minCpss = 1.61640 = 0.0025 mg/ml = 0.002 mg/ml

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 5fecb77f-66cc-4650-8201-3759bda2a213question: A drug X was given continuous intravenous infusion at 1.6 mg/min. The clearance of the drug is 640 mL/min. With a half-life of 1.8 hours, what would be the steady state plasma concentration of drug?opa: 0.002 mg/mLopb: 0.004 trig/mLopc: 2.88 mg/mLopd: 3.55 mg/mLcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Answer- A. 0.002 mg/mLCpss is directly propoional to the dose rate & inversely propoional to the clearance of drug.Cpss = Dose rate/clearanceDose rate= 1.6 mgiml; Clearance= 640 ml/minCpss = 1.61640 = 0.0025 mg/ml = 0.002 mg/mlsubject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

31579687-1448-4606-9db6-52f9d0cc8a7f

Which of the following is NOT the criteria to discharge a patient of dengue haemorrhagic fever?

Afebrile for 24 hours without antipyretics

Platelet count greater than 50,000 cells

Return of appetite

Atleast 24 hours since recovery from shock

single

Normal urine output- 1.5 l/day For discharge patient should become afebrile 24 hrs from shock recovery would not be enough should be kept a little longer to know general well being of patient. Therefore, option a, b, d ruled out. Patients with dengue hemorrhagic fever or dengue shock syndrome may be discharged from the hospital when they meet the following criteria: Afebrile for 24 hours without antipyretics Good appetite, clinically improved condition Adequate urine output Stable hematrocit level Atleast 48 hours since recovery from shock No respiratory distress Platelet count greater than 50,000 cells.

Medicine

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 31579687-1448-4606-9db6-52f9d0cc8a7fquestion: Which of the following is NOT the criteria to discharge a patient of dengue haemorrhagic fever?opa: Afebrile for 24 hours without antipyreticsopb: Platelet count greater than 50,000 cellsopc: Return of appetiteopd: Atleast 24 hours since recovery from shockcop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Normal urine output- 1.5 l/day For discharge patient should become afebrile 24 hrs from shock recovery would not be enough should be kept a little longer to know general well being of patient. Therefore, option a, b, d ruled out. Patients with dengue hemorrhagic fever or dengue shock syndrome may be discharged from the hospital when they meet the following criteria: Afebrile for 24 hours without antipyretics Good appetite, clinically improved condition Adequate urine output Stable hematrocit level Atleast 48 hours since recovery from shock No respiratory distress Platelet count greater than 50,000 cells.subject_name: Medicinetopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

21618a55-4eaf-457c-a8fa-a1a2149c566a

Birth weight of a baby can be increased by:

Cessation of smoking

Aspirin

Ca++ and vitamin D supplement

Bed rest

single

“Smoking is the single most preventable cause of IUGR in infants born in the united states—women who quit smoking at 7 months gestation have newborns with higher mean birthweights than do women who smoke throughout the pregnancy. Women who quit smoking before 16 weeks of gestation are not at any increased risk for an IUGR infant.” COGDT 10/e, p 293 The answer is further supported by Williams 24/e, p 882 “In prevention of fetal growth restriction – smoking cessation is critical” Williams 24/e, p 882

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 21618a55-4eaf-457c-a8fa-a1a2149c566aquestion: Birth weight of a baby can be increased by:opa: Cessation of smokingopb: Aspirinopc: Ca++ and vitamin D supplementopd: Bed restcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: “Smoking is the single most preventable cause of IUGR in infants born in the united states—women who quit smoking at 7 months gestation have newborns with higher mean birthweights than do women who smoke throughout the pregnancy. Women who quit smoking before 16 weeks of gestation are not at any increased risk for an IUGR infant.” COGDT 10/e, p 293 The answer is further supported by Williams 24/e, p 882 “In prevention of fetal growth restriction – smoking cessation is critical” Williams 24/e, p 882subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

7c9b4d7b-6290-430f-a097-96d88c65ecd8

Z tracking technique is used in?

Administering long acting antipsychotic

Lithium monitoring

Carbamazepine monitoring

Nicotine patch

single

Z track technique Used for giving i.m. injections. In this technique, the skin and tissue are pulled and held firmly while injection is given, and after removing the needle, skin and tissue are released. This prevents tracking (leakage) of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue (underneath the skin) as the track that needle forms is zig zag and drug can't come out.

Psychiatry

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 7c9b4d7b-6290-430f-a097-96d88c65ecd8question: Z tracking technique is used in?opa: Administering long acting antipsychoticopb: Lithium monitoringopc: Carbamazepine monitoringopd: Nicotine patchcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Z track technique Used for giving i.m. injections. In this technique, the skin and tissue are pulled and held firmly while injection is given, and after removing the needle, skin and tissue are released. This prevents tracking (leakage) of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue (underneath the skin) as the track that needle forms is zig zag and drug can't come out.subject_name: Psychiatrytopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

ba4749e2-e5f5-4a98-8663-2b703e280c6c

Rearrange the sequence of hand washing: a. b. c. d.

a,c,d,b

b,c,a,d

d,a,c,b

c,a,b,d

single

Surgery

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: ba4749e2-e5f5-4a98-8663-2b703e280c6cquestion: Rearrange the sequence of hand washing: a. b. c. d.opa: a,c,d,bopb: b,c,a,dopc: d,a,c,bopd: c,a,b,dcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Surgerytopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

36b43626-f928-486f-b724-abecea127f62

A surgeon decides to operate a patient of carcinoma cecum and perform a right hemicolectomy through a midline laparotomy approach. You have been instructed to prepare the pas of the patient for surgery. What will you do?

Clean and drape from the level of nipple to mid-thigh

Clean and drape from chin to knee

Clean and drape from umbilicus to mid-thigh

Clean and drape from rib cage to inguinal regions

single

Ans: A. Clean and drape from the level of nipple to mid-thighArea of Cleaning & Draping in SurgeriesCranial surgeryDepends upon surgeonThyroid or neck surgeryChin to nipple with shoulder & axilladegEye surgeryCut eyelashes of affected eyeNasal surgeryNo shaving unless with mustacheEar surgeryTwo & half inches around eardegChest surgeryBase of neck to waist, axilla & inner armdegAbdominal & pelvic surgeryBase of neck to waist, axilla & inner armdegKidney-anteriorNipple to perineum, side to side; supra scapular region to buttocksVaginal, scrotal, rectal surgeryWaist to perineum plus anterior & inner aspect of thigh & 6 inches from groin; posterior?entire buttocks & anusdegLower extremitiesDigits 2 inches above knee, entire extremity and groindegUpper extremitiesDistal arm 2 inches above elbow, elbow up to axilladeg

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 36b43626-f928-486f-b724-abecea127f62question: A surgeon decides to operate a patient of carcinoma cecum and perform a right hemicolectomy through a midline laparotomy approach. You have been instructed to prepare the pas of the patient for surgery. What will you do?opa: Clean and drape from the level of nipple to mid-thighopb: Clean and drape from chin to kneeopc: Clean and drape from umbilicus to mid-thighopd: Clean and drape from rib cage to inguinal regionscop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans: A. Clean and drape from the level of nipple to mid-thighArea of Cleaning & Draping in SurgeriesCranial surgeryDepends upon surgeonThyroid or neck surgeryChin to nipple with shoulder & axilladegEye surgeryCut eyelashes of affected eyeNasal surgeryNo shaving unless with mustacheEar surgeryTwo & half inches around eardegChest surgeryBase of neck to waist, axilla & inner armdegAbdominal & pelvic surgeryBase of neck to waist, axilla & inner armdegKidney-anteriorNipple to perineum, side to side; supra scapular region to buttocksVaginal, scrotal, rectal surgeryWaist to perineum plus anterior & inner aspect of thigh & 6 inches from groin; posterior?entire buttocks & anusdegLower extremitiesDigits 2 inches above knee, entire extremity and groindegUpper extremitiesDistal arm 2 inches above elbow, elbow up to axilladegsubject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

901769b9-8f5f-48e3-869a-879c1d57ad93

Which of the following abnormalities can be diagnosed in the I st trimester of pregnancy?

Anencephaly

Encephalocele

Meningocele

Microcephaly

single

Answer- A. Anencephaly"Anencephaly is diagnosed by the absence of cranial vault (calvarium) and telencephalon. Brain tissue is angiomatous.Early diagnosis is possible at aboat 13 weeks

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 901769b9-8f5f-48e3-869a-879c1d57ad93question: Which of the following abnormalities can be diagnosed in the I st trimester of pregnancy?opa: Anencephalyopb: Encephaloceleopc: Meningoceleopd: Microcephalycop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Answer- A. Anencephaly"Anencephaly is diagnosed by the absence of cranial vault (calvarium) and telencephalon. Brain tissue is angiomatous.Early diagnosis is possible at aboat 13 weekssubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

ab34e961-f641-4c92-9324-06da16cc52ef

Loading dose MgSO4 (IV) to be prepared as

4 ml 50% w/v plus 16 ml NS

8 ml 50% w/v plus 12 ml NS

12 ml 50% w/v plus 8 ml NS

16 ml 50% w/v plus 4 ml NS

single

Loading dose of Mgso4: Total: 14 gms Ampule commercially available is: Each 2 ml of injection (50%) = 1 gm of MgSO4 4 gm I/V as a 20 % solution that is 4 ampules (8 mL=4 gm) + 12 mL NS making it 20 % solution + 10 gm I/M (5gm IM in each buttock as 50 % solution)

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: ab34e961-f641-4c92-9324-06da16cc52efquestion: Loading dose MgSO4 (IV) to be prepared asopa: 4 ml 50% w/v plus 16 ml NSopb: 8 ml 50% w/v plus 12 ml NSopc: 12 ml 50% w/v plus 8 ml NSopd: 16 ml 50% w/v plus 4 ml NScop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Loading dose of Mgso4: Total: 14 gms Ampule commercially available is: Each 2 ml of injection (50%) = 1 gm of MgSO4 4 gm I/V as a 20 % solution that is 4 ampules (8 mL=4 gm) + 12 mL NS making it 20 % solution + 10 gm I/M (5gm IM in each buttock as 50 % solution)subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

fa7ee43b-5ca6-4b65-a72d-9bafd53b25df

In extraction, best time to administer analgesics is:

Before anaesthesia wears off

Prior to extraction

When pain is moderate to severe

After anaesthesia wears off

single

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: fa7ee43b-5ca6-4b65-a72d-9bafd53b25dfquestion: In extraction, best time to administer analgesics is:opa: Before anaesthesia wears offopb: Prior to extractionopc: When pain is moderate to severeopd: After anaesthesia wears offcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

f3f48369-3b19-470a-bdaa-a5d8fa4d8afa

Preconceptional intake of which of the following results in decrease in incidence of neural tube defect:

Vitamin A

Folate

Vitamin E

Vitamin C

single

“Folic acid has been shown to effectively reduce the risk of neural tube defects (NTDs). A daily 4 mg dose is recommended for patients who have had a previous pregnancy affected by neural tube defects. It should be started atleast 1 month (ideally 3 months) prior to pregnancy and continued through the first 6–12 weeks of pregnancy.” COGDT 10/e, p 197 Remember: Therapeutic dose of folic acid (to be given in females with previous history of baby with NTD) - 4 mg. Prophylactic dose of folic acid = 0.4 mg i.e. 400 mg Duration: It should be started 1 month before conception and continued till 3 months of pregnancy.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: f3f48369-3b19-470a-bdaa-a5d8fa4d8afaquestion: Preconceptional intake of which of the following results in decrease in incidence of neural tube defect:opa: Vitamin Aopb: Folateopc: Vitamin Eopd: Vitamin Ccop: 1choice_type: singleexp: “Folic acid has been shown to effectively reduce the risk of neural tube defects (NTDs). A daily 4 mg dose is recommended for patients who have had a previous pregnancy affected by neural tube defects. It should be started atleast 1 month (ideally 3 months) prior to pregnancy and continued through the first 6–12 weeks of pregnancy.” COGDT 10/e, p 197 Remember: Therapeutic dose of folic acid (to be given in females with previous history of baby with NTD) - 4 mg. Prophylactic dose of folic acid = 0.4 mg i.e. 400 mg Duration: It should be started 1 month before conception and continued till 3 months of pregnancy.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

e9d9c003-7fb0-404f-aa20-bea77c101f75

A child had repeated vomiting and developed metabolic alkalosis. The treatment given is –

Ringer lactate

I.V. normal saline and potassium

ORS

I.V. Normal saline

single

Treatment of metabolic alkalosis due to vomiting or nasogastric suction. Most children with metabolic alkalosis have one of the chloride responsive etiology (e.g., vomiting). In these situations, administration of suffieeint sodium chloride and potassium chloride to correct volume deficit is necessary to correct metabolic alkalosis. Adequate replacement of gastric losses of sodium and potassium in a child with vomiting can minimize or prevent the development of metabolic alkalosis. With adequate intravascular volume and a normal serum potassium concentration, the kidney is able to excrete the excess bicarbonate within a couple of days.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: e9d9c003-7fb0-404f-aa20-bea77c101f75question: A child had repeated vomiting and developed metabolic alkalosis. The treatment given is –opa: Ringer lactateopb: I.V. normal saline and potassiumopc: ORSopd: I.V. Normal salinecop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Treatment of metabolic alkalosis due to vomiting or nasogastric suction. Most children with metabolic alkalosis have one of the chloride responsive etiology (e.g., vomiting). In these situations, administration of suffieeint sodium chloride and potassium chloride to correct volume deficit is necessary to correct metabolic alkalosis. Adequate replacement of gastric losses of sodium and potassium in a child with vomiting can minimize or prevent the development of metabolic alkalosis. With adequate intravascular volume and a normal serum potassium concentration, the kidney is able to excrete the excess bicarbonate within a couple of days.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

6a1a402b-247e-4dd9-80b2-ad2f347b2d02

Drug of choice for Rheumatic fever prophylaxis in penicillin allergic patient –

Erythromycin

Clindamycin

Vancomycin

Gentamycin

multi

T/T of Rhernatic fever Drug of choice --> Penicillin Drug of choice in penicillin allergic patients -4 Erythromycin Drug of choice for prophylaxis in Rheumatic fever -4 enzathine penicillin Primary prevention            -       Benzathine penicillin administared before the 9th day of streptococcal pharyngitis Secondary prevention       -       Benzathine penicillin is administered of patients who have had an episode of Rheumatic fever this prevents further attacks In penicillin allergic patients erythromycin is administered.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 6a1a402b-247e-4dd9-80b2-ad2f347b2d02question: Drug of choice for Rheumatic fever prophylaxis in penicillin allergic patient –opa: Erythromycinopb: Clindamycinopc: Vancomycinopd: Gentamycincop: 0choice_type: multiexp: T/T of Rhernatic fever Drug of choice --> Penicillin Drug of choice in penicillin allergic patients -4 Erythromycin Drug of choice for prophylaxis in Rheumatic fever -4 enzathine penicillin Primary prevention            -       Benzathine penicillin administared before the 9th day of streptococcal pharyngitis Secondary prevention       -       Benzathine penicillin is administered of patients who have had an episode of Rheumatic fever this prevents further attacks In penicillin allergic patients erythromycin is administered.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

8cced5f0-0647-4f31-9ba7-71bebcfb2255

Which of the following is caused by Amphotericin B

Hypo kalemia

Hyperkalemia

Hypermagnesemia

Hyponatremia

single

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 8cced5f0-0647-4f31-9ba7-71bebcfb2255question: Which of the following is caused by Amphotericin Bopa: Hypo kalemiaopb: Hyperkalemiaopc: Hypermagnesemiaopd: Hyponatremiacop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

83190d93-147b-4abc-a5fc-500371388fd5

All of the following are signs of respiratory insufficiency except:

Hypoxia

Inability to speak

Strider during inspiration

All of the above

multi

Ans: D. All of the above(Ref Bailey 27/e p929-925, 26/e p303: Sobiston 20/e p557: Harrison 19/e p1661, 1731, 1732).Respiratory Insufficiency:Inability of lungs to function properly & maintain normal processes of oxygen uptake & carbon dioxide removal.Sign & symptoms of respiratory insufficiency:Fatigue, shoness of breath, heavy breathing, rapid breathing, exercise intolerance, hypoxia, inability to speak & stridor during inspiration.

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 83190d93-147b-4abc-a5fc-500371388fd5question: All of the following are signs of respiratory insufficiency except:opa: Hypoxiaopb: Inability to speakopc: Strider during inspirationopd: All of the abovecop: 3choice_type: multiexp: Ans: D. All of the above(Ref Bailey 27/e p929-925, 26/e p303: Sobiston 20/e p557: Harrison 19/e p1661, 1731, 1732).Respiratory Insufficiency:Inability of lungs to function properly & maintain normal processes of oxygen uptake & carbon dioxide removal.Sign & symptoms of respiratory insufficiency:Fatigue, shoness of breath, heavy breathing, rapid breathing, exercise intolerance, hypoxia, inability to speak & stridor during inspiration.subject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

4127528f-2cc3-44bc-b07e-446577f5018c

What is the dose of adrenaline in anaphylactic shock?

0.5 ml in 1:1000

0.5 ml in 1:10000

1 ml in 1:1000

1.5 ml in 1:1000

single

Ans. A. 0.5 ml in 1:1000Severe hypersensitivity reactions, anaphylactic shockIM Injection:* Adults: The usual dose is 500 micrograms (0.5ml of adrenaline 1/1000). If necessary, this dose may be repeated several times at 5-minute intervals according to blood pressure, pulse and respiratory function.* Half doses of adrenaline may be safer for patients who are taking amitriptyline, imipramine or a beta blocker.Paediatric population:* The following doses of adrenaline 1/1,000 are recommended:AgeDoseOver 12 years0.5 mg IM (0.5ml 1:1000 solution)6 - 12 years0.3 mg IM (0.3ml 1:1000 solution)6 months - 6 years0.15 mg IM (0.15ml 1:1000 solution)Under 6 months0.01mg/kg IM (0.01ml/kg 1:1000 solution)* If necessary, these doses may be repeated at 5-15 -minute intervals according to blood pressure, pulse and respiratory function.

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 4127528f-2cc3-44bc-b07e-446577f5018cquestion: What is the dose of adrenaline in anaphylactic shock?opa: 0.5 ml in 1:1000opb: 0.5 ml in 1:10000opc: 1 ml in 1:1000opd: 1.5 ml in 1:1000cop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans. A. 0.5 ml in 1:1000Severe hypersensitivity reactions, anaphylactic shockIM Injection:* Adults: The usual dose is 500 micrograms (0.5ml of adrenaline 1/1000). If necessary, this dose may be repeated several times at 5-minute intervals according to blood pressure, pulse and respiratory function.* Half doses of adrenaline may be safer for patients who are taking amitriptyline, imipramine or a beta blocker.Paediatric population:* The following doses of adrenaline 1/1,000 are recommended:AgeDoseOver 12 years0.5 mg IM (0.5ml 1:1000 solution)6 - 12 years0.3 mg IM (0.3ml 1:1000 solution)6 months - 6 years0.15 mg IM (0.15ml 1:1000 solution)Under 6 months0.01mg/kg IM (0.01ml/kg 1:1000 solution)* If necessary, these doses may be repeated at 5-15 -minute intervals according to blood pressure, pulse and respiratory function.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

1f6b3a83-ed5e-4d0e-90b3-f740ff95c763

All are used for postpaum hemorrhage except -

Misoprostol

Dinoprostone

Prostaglandin F2 alpha

Oxytocin

multi

Ans. B. DinoprostonePostpaum hemorrhage, the loss of more than 500 mL of blood after delivery, occurs in up to 18 percent of bihs and is the most common maternal morbidity in developed countries. Dinoprostone:Naturally occurring prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). It has impoant effects in labour.It also stimulates osteoblasts to release factors which stimulates bone resorption by osteoclasts.As a prescription drug it is used as a vaginal suppository, to prepare the cervix for labour and to induce labour. Indication:For the termination of pregnancy during the second trimester (from the 12th through the 20th gestational week as calculated from the first day of the last normal menstrual period), as well as for evacuation of the uterine contents in the management of missed aboion or intrauterine fetal death up to 28 weeks of gestational age as calculated from the first day of the last normal menstrual period.In the management of nonmetastatic gestational trophoblastic disease (benign hydatidiform mole).Other indications include improving the cervical inducibility (cervical "ripening") in pregnant women at or near term with a medical or obstetrical need for labor induction, and the management of postpaum hemorrhage.

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 1f6b3a83-ed5e-4d0e-90b3-f740ff95c763question: All are used for postpaum hemorrhage except -opa: Misoprostolopb: Dinoprostoneopc: Prostaglandin F2 alphaopd: Oxytocincop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Ans. B. DinoprostonePostpaum hemorrhage, the loss of more than 500 mL of blood after delivery, occurs in up to 18 percent of bihs and is the most common maternal morbidity in developed countries. Dinoprostone:Naturally occurring prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). It has impoant effects in labour.It also stimulates osteoblasts to release factors which stimulates bone resorption by osteoclasts.As a prescription drug it is used as a vaginal suppository, to prepare the cervix for labour and to induce labour. Indication:For the termination of pregnancy during the second trimester (from the 12th through the 20th gestational week as calculated from the first day of the last normal menstrual period), as well as for evacuation of the uterine contents in the management of missed aboion or intrauterine fetal death up to 28 weeks of gestational age as calculated from the first day of the last normal menstrual period.In the management of nonmetastatic gestational trophoblastic disease (benign hydatidiform mole).Other indications include improving the cervical inducibility (cervical "ripening") in pregnant women at or near term with a medical or obstetrical need for labor induction, and the management of postpaum hemorrhage.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

4e6da460-99e2-4192-b3b6-b10f8827dce2

What among the following is the use of this?

Prevent viral infections

Prevent transfusion related reactions

Prevent bacterial contamination

Prevent blood mismatch

single

The picture given above shows the WBC filter. | WBC's entering the body of the recipient | are the chances of development of transfusion related reactions. Purpose of having this kind of filter is that: - lesser chances of entry of WBC inside the body of the host. - Prevent the entry of (Cell) aggregates inside the body of the recipient. The size of the WBC filters can range from 170- 200m. The size of the transfusion needle is 18-19 gauge.

Pathology

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 4e6da460-99e2-4192-b3b6-b10f8827dce2question: What among the following is the use of this?opa: Prevent viral infectionsopb: Prevent transfusion related reactionsopc: Prevent bacterial contaminationopd: Prevent blood mismatchcop: 1choice_type: singleexp: The picture given above shows the WBC filter. | WBC's entering the body of the recipient | are the chances of development of transfusion related reactions. Purpose of having this kind of filter is that: - lesser chances of entry of WBC inside the body of the host. - Prevent the entry of (Cell) aggregates inside the body of the recipient. The size of the WBC filters can range from 170- 200m. The size of the transfusion needle is 18-19 gauge.subject_name: Pathologytopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

9aea1874-b4cf-4ba0-8de4-ac60866796ba

Posterior pituitary insufficiency leads to:

Diabetes mellitus

Diabetes insipidus

Dwarfism

Cretinism

single

ADH SYNTHESIS IN SUPRAOPTIC AND PARAVENTRICULAR NUCLEI OF THE HYPOTHALAMUS AND ADH RELEASE FROM THE POSTERIOR PITUITARY Figure shows the neuroanatomy of the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland, where ADH is synthesized and released. The hypothalamus contains two types of magnocellular (large) neurons that synthesize ADH in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus, about five sixths in the supraoptic nuclei and about one sixth in the paraventricular nuclei. Both of these nuclei have axonal extensions to the posterior pituitary. The most important renal action of ADH is to increase the water permeability  of  the  distal  tubule,  collecting  tubule, and collecting duct epithelia. This effect helps the body to conserve water in circumstances such as dehydration. In the absence of ADH, the permeability of the distal tubules and collecting ducts to water is low, causing the kidneys to excrete large amounts of dilute urine, a condition called diabetes insipidus. Thus, the actions of ADH play a key role in controlling the degree of dilution or concentration of the urine.

Physiology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 9aea1874-b4cf-4ba0-8de4-ac60866796baquestion: Posterior pituitary insufficiency leads to:opa: Diabetes mellitusopb: Diabetes insipidusopc: Dwarfismopd: Cretinismcop: 1choice_type: singleexp: ADH SYNTHESIS IN SUPRAOPTIC AND PARAVENTRICULAR NUCLEI OF THE HYPOTHALAMUS AND ADH RELEASE FROM THE POSTERIOR PITUITARY Figure shows the neuroanatomy of the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland, where ADH is synthesized and released. The hypothalamus contains two types of magnocellular (large) neurons that synthesize ADH in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus, about five sixths in the supraoptic nuclei and about one sixth in the paraventricular nuclei. Both of these nuclei have axonal extensions to the posterior pituitary. The most important renal action of ADH is to increase the water permeability  of  the  distal  tubule,  collecting  tubule, and collecting duct epithelia. This effect helps the body to conserve water in circumstances such as dehydration. In the absence of ADH, the permeability of the distal tubules and collecting ducts to water is low, causing the kidneys to excrete large amounts of dilute urine, a condition called diabetes insipidus. Thus, the actions of ADH play a key role in controlling the degree of dilution or concentration of the urine.subject_name: Physiologytopic_name: None

yes

7bc43b0e-3731-49ad-a734-c924220e3deb

All are used in preterm labour to decrease uterine contractility except:

Methyl alcohol

Ritodrine

Magnesium sulphate

Dexamethasone

multi

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 7bc43b0e-3731-49ad-a734-c924220e3debquestion: All are used in preterm labour to decrease uterine contractility except:opa: Methyl alcoholopb: Ritodrineopc: Magnesium sulphateopd: Dexamethasonecop: 3choice_type: multiexp: Nonesubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

a35fecfa-0c54-497b-957c-58da96b3716a

CPR should have a ratio of chest compression to mouth breathing of:

1:04

4:01

2:03

3:02

single

Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: a35fecfa-0c54-497b-957c-58da96b3716aquestion: CPR should have a ratio of chest compression to mouth breathing of:opa: 1:04opb: 4:01opc: 2:03opd: 3:02cop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

73b821cd-6c0f-427f-bd1c-ccc14a5f4267

A baby presents with tetany. First thing to be done is administration of :

Diazepam

Vitamin D

Calcium gluconate

Calcitonin

single

The baby presenting with tetany is hypocalcemic, so must be treated immediately with calcium gluconate I.V. Treatment of hypocalcemia. Acute or Severe Tetany The objective of the treatment is to correct hypocalcemia immediately with calcium gluconate I.V Maintenance management of hypoparathyroidism and chronic hypocakenzia. The objective is to maintain serum calcium and serum phosphase at approximately normal levels. It usually requires. 1. Diet  ---> Calcium supplements and diet rich in calcium. 2. Vitamin D supplementation  ---> Ergocakiferol or dihydrotachysterol.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 73b821cd-6c0f-427f-bd1c-ccc14a5f4267question: A baby presents with tetany. First thing to be done is administration of :opa: Diazepamopb: Vitamin Dopc: Calcium gluconateopd: Calcitonincop: 2choice_type: singleexp: The baby presenting with tetany is hypocalcemic, so must be treated immediately with calcium gluconate I.V. Treatment of hypocalcemia. Acute or Severe Tetany The objective of the treatment is to correct hypocalcemia immediately with calcium gluconate I.V Maintenance management of hypoparathyroidism and chronic hypocakenzia. The objective is to maintain serum calcium and serum phosphase at approximately normal levels. It usually requires. 1. Diet  ---> Calcium supplements and diet rich in calcium. 2. Vitamin D supplementation  ---> Ergocakiferol or dihydrotachysterol.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

604ef1a2-7595-4718-9f8c-12292063e19f

Which of the following anti-tubercular drug can cause ophthalmological toxicity?

Isoniazid

Rifampicin

Ethambutol

Pyrazinamide

single

Ethambutol side effect: causes Red Green color blindness (Ophthalmological toxicity) Isoniazid side effects: Neurotoxicity, Hepatotoxicity. Pyrazinamide side effects: Hyperuricemia (gouty ahritis). Rifampicin side effects: Hepatotoxicity, orange red urine and tears etc.

Pharmacology

AIIMS 2018

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 604ef1a2-7595-4718-9f8c-12292063e19fquestion: Which of the following anti-tubercular drug can cause ophthalmological toxicity?opa: Isoniazidopb: Rifampicinopc: Ethambutolopd: Pyrazinamidecop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ethambutol side effect: causes Red Green color blindness (Ophthalmological toxicity) Isoniazid side effects: Neurotoxicity, Hepatotoxicity. Pyrazinamide side effects: Hyperuricemia (gouty ahritis). Rifampicin side effects: Hepatotoxicity, orange red urine and tears etc.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: AIIMS 2018

yes

7a3a771f-2b56-4af8-b967-3c991b394bc6

Compared to unfractionated heparin, Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has reliable anticoagulant action because:

It interferes with thrombin and antithrombin III simultaneously

It is less protein bound

It is given subcutaneously

It is cleared by macrophages

single

Answer- B. It is less protein boundCompared to unfractionated heparin, Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has reliable anticoagulant action because it is less protein bound.Indications of LMW heparins:Prophylaxis of DVT and pulmonary embolism in high-risk patients undergoing surgery stroke or other immobilized patientsTreatment of established DVTUnstable anginaTo maintain patency of cannulae and shunts in dialysis patients and in extracorporeal circulation.

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 7a3a771f-2b56-4af8-b967-3c991b394bc6question: Compared to unfractionated heparin, Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has reliable anticoagulant action because:opa: It interferes with thrombin and antithrombin III simultaneouslyopb: It is less protein boundopc: It is given subcutaneouslyopd: It is cleared by macrophagescop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Answer- B. It is less protein boundCompared to unfractionated heparin, Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) has reliable anticoagulant action because it is less protein bound.Indications of LMW heparins:Prophylaxis of DVT and pulmonary embolism in high-risk patients undergoing surgery stroke or other immobilized patientsTreatment of established DVTUnstable anginaTo maintain patency of cannulae and shunts in dialysis patients and in extracorporeal circulation.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

49b456da-591f-4221-b56b-9a04eaa21b77

There was an outbreak of MRSA in the hospital and it was found that a nurse of NICU had MRSA colonisation of anterior nares. What is the best treatment?

Topical bacitracin

Oral Vancomycin

Inhaled colistin

IV cefazolin

single

Ans. A. Topical bacitracinMRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) infection is a life-threatening bacterial infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus that is resistant to the antibiotic methicillin. Severe cases usually require hospitalization for treatment.MRSA infections are usually treated with systemic antibiotics, either orally or intravenously.Topical bacitracin in combination with neomycin and polymyxin B might be added to the therapy.

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 49b456da-591f-4221-b56b-9a04eaa21b77question: There was an outbreak of MRSA in the hospital and it was found that a nurse of NICU had MRSA colonisation of anterior nares. What is the best treatment?opa: Topical bacitracinopb: Oral Vancomycinopc: Inhaled colistinopd: IV cefazolincop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans. A. Topical bacitracinMRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) infection is a life-threatening bacterial infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus that is resistant to the antibiotic methicillin. Severe cases usually require hospitalization for treatment.MRSA infections are usually treated with systemic antibiotics, either orally or intravenously.Topical bacitracin in combination with neomycin and polymyxin B might be added to the therapy.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

d9f1b19f-12f5-467d-a831-ba3d9020d230

Amniotic fluid contains acetyl cholinesterase enzyme. What is the diagnosis ?

Open spina bifida

Gastroschisis

Omphalocele

Osteogenesis imperfecta

single

Amniotic fluid Acetylcholineesterase level is elevated in open neural tube defect: It has a better diagnostic value than AFP. In case of suspected neural tube defect, on Amniocentesis, if amniotic fluid AFP levels are raised but Acetylcholinesterase levels are normal, patient should be reassured that elevated AFP levels are probably caused by fetal blood contamination but, if acetyl cholinesterase is also elevated along with AFP it is indicative of NTD. It also helps to distinguish between neural tube defect and abdominal wall defects (both of which cause elevated MSAFP): – Acetyl cholinesterase is raised in open NTD, but is low in abdominal wall defects. – In patients with NTD, the ratio of acetylcholinesterase to butyrlcholinesterase levels is 0.14 or more. In case of abdominal wall defects this ratio is less than 0.14.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: d9f1b19f-12f5-467d-a831-ba3d9020d230question: Amniotic fluid contains acetyl cholinesterase enzyme. What is the diagnosis ?opa: Open spina bifidaopb: Gastroschisisopc: Omphaloceleopd: Osteogenesis imperfectacop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Amniotic fluid Acetylcholineesterase level is elevated in open neural tube defect: It has a better diagnostic value than AFP. In case of suspected neural tube defect, on Amniocentesis, if amniotic fluid AFP levels are raised but Acetylcholinesterase levels are normal, patient should be reassured that elevated AFP levels are probably caused by fetal blood contamination but, if acetyl cholinesterase is also elevated along with AFP it is indicative of NTD. It also helps to distinguish between neural tube defect and abdominal wall defects (both of which cause elevated MSAFP): – Acetyl cholinesterase is raised in open NTD, but is low in abdominal wall defects. – In patients with NTD, the ratio of acetylcholinesterase to butyrlcholinesterase levels is 0.14 or more. In case of abdominal wall defects this ratio is less than 0.14.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

5fa2e23f-c19c-4828-b240-59b7a0a84834

What should be the ideal temperature in delivery room for the neonates to be kept in warmer?

22-26degC

28-30degC

30-35degC

37degC

single

Ans: A. 22-26degC(Ref Ghai 8/e p133).Nursery temperature:Ideal temperature in delivery room for neonates in warmer state - 22-26degC (72-78"F).Should be free from drill of air.Ventilation system for each delivery & resuscitation room designed to control ambient temperature between 72-78 degrees Fahrenheit (22-26 degrees Centigrade) during delivery, resuscitation & stabilization of newborn.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 5fa2e23f-c19c-4828-b240-59b7a0a84834question: What should be the ideal temperature in delivery room for the neonates to be kept in warmer?opa: 22-26degCopb: 28-30degCopc: 30-35degCopd: 37degCcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans: A. 22-26degC(Ref Ghai 8/e p133).Nursery temperature:Ideal temperature in delivery room for neonates in warmer state - 22-26degC (72-78"F).Should be free from drill of air.Ventilation system for each delivery & resuscitation room designed to control ambient temperature between 72-78 degrees Fahrenheit (22-26 degrees Centigrade) during delivery, resuscitation & stabilization of newborn.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

9abacba9-f159-401a-b974-9040f9efdd8a

What dose of misoprostol is used orally to control bleeding in post paum hemorrhage?

400 micrograms

600 micrograms

800 micrograms

1000 micrograms

multi

Ans: B. 600 micrograms(Ref Williams 24/e 1785)Approved dose of misoprostol in emergent management of postpaum hemorrhage = 600 pg.Misoprostol (Cytotec):Synthetic prostaglandin E1 analogue.Effective in prevention & treatment of atony & postpaum hemorrhage.Derman (2006) compared a 600 ug oral dose given at delivery against placebo and found that the drug decreased hemorrhage incidence from 12 to 6 percent and that of severe hemorrhage from 1.2 to 0.2 percent.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 9abacba9-f159-401a-b974-9040f9efdd8aquestion: What dose of misoprostol is used orally to control bleeding in post paum hemorrhage?opa: 400 microgramsopb: 600 microgramsopc: 800 microgramsopd: 1000 microgramscop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Ans: B. 600 micrograms(Ref Williams 24/e 1785)Approved dose of misoprostol in emergent management of postpaum hemorrhage = 600 pg.Misoprostol (Cytotec):Synthetic prostaglandin E1 analogue.Effective in prevention & treatment of atony & postpaum hemorrhage.Derman (2006) compared a 600 ug oral dose given at delivery against placebo and found that the drug decreased hemorrhage incidence from 12 to 6 percent and that of severe hemorrhage from 1.2 to 0.2 percent.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

131f5cb9-45ff-4698-992a-dfb143a3c237

The given below device is/used for:

Pneumatic compression stocking

Varicose vein

Hypothermia

Cellulitis

single

Pneumatic compression stocking is used to prevent DVT in patients with immobilization for longer duration of time. These are helpful in patients at moderate risk for DVT as a prophylactic measure but these are not effective against established thrombosis. It is used especially in bariatric population and can be used in their room, operation room or post-operative area. - DVT should be initially managed by heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin. - Long-term management is done by anti-coagulation with warfarin. - Inferior vena cava filter is indicated for patients not benefiting from medical treatment.

Surgery

AIIMS 2018

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 131f5cb9-45ff-4698-992a-dfb143a3c237question: The given below device is/used for:opa: Pneumatic compression stockingopb: Varicose veinopc: Hypothermiaopd: Cellulitiscop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Pneumatic compression stocking is used to prevent DVT in patients with immobilization for longer duration of time. These are helpful in patients at moderate risk for DVT as a prophylactic measure but these are not effective against established thrombosis. It is used especially in bariatric population and can be used in their room, operation room or post-operative area. - DVT should be initially managed by heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin. - Long-term management is done by anti-coagulation with warfarin. - Inferior vena cava filter is indicated for patients not benefiting from medical treatment.subject_name: Surgerytopic_name: AIIMS 2018

yes

7297376f-a521-40a8-8402-2958f583c745

Exclusive breast feeding may be associated with all of the following except –

Hemolysis due to Vit–K deficiency

Evening colic

Golden colour stool

Prolongation of physiological jaundice

multi

Breast feeding protects against evening colic. Evening colic may be seen as a manifestation of allergy to cow's milk, but not with breast milk. Haemorrhage due to vit K deficiency may be seen. Breast milk contains very little Vit K - Dutta 4th/e p. 515 Hypoprothrombinemia, may therefore occur along with defeciency of other vit K dependent coagulation factors. (VII, IX, X). This predisposes to haemorrhagic disease in new horns. There is strong association between exclusive breast feeding and neonatal jaundice. It is presumed to be due to inhibitory substance in the breast milk, that intefere with bilirubin conjugation e.g. pregananediol and free fatty acids. Golden colour stool may be seen.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 7297376f-a521-40a8-8402-2958f583c745question: Exclusive breast feeding may be associated with all of the following except –opa: Hemolysis due to Vit–K deficiencyopb: Evening colicopc: Golden colour stoolopd: Prolongation of physiological jaundicecop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Breast feeding protects against evening colic. Evening colic may be seen as a manifestation of allergy to cow's milk, but not with breast milk. Haemorrhage due to vit K deficiency may be seen. Breast milk contains very little Vit K - Dutta 4th/e p. 515 Hypoprothrombinemia, may therefore occur along with defeciency of other vit K dependent coagulation factors. (VII, IX, X). This predisposes to haemorrhagic disease in new horns. There is strong association between exclusive breast feeding and neonatal jaundice. It is presumed to be due to inhibitory substance in the breast milk, that intefere with bilirubin conjugation e.g. pregananediol and free fatty acids. Golden colour stool may be seen.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

4f50899d-3016-461b-bd81-c1c29fbe6d29

A psychiatrist is not posted at:

PHC

Military hospitals

District hospitals

Hospitals with medical colleges

single

Ans: A. PHC(Ref Park 24/e p944, 23/e p9Ob, 221e p847).A psychiatrist is not posted at PHC.For sub-centre area of PHCApa from the essential staff, the desirable staff for both type A and type B PHC are:One of the two medical officers (MBBS) should be lady doctor, if the delivery case load is 30 or more per month.One AYUSH medical officer to provide choice to the people, where as AYUSH facility is not available in the vicinity.One staff nurse/nurse midwife.One health educator at the PHC.That makes total staff at type A PHC 18 and at type B PHC 21.

Social & Preventive Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 4f50899d-3016-461b-bd81-c1c29fbe6d29question: A psychiatrist is not posted at:opa: PHCopb: Military hospitalsopc: District hospitalsopd: Hospitals with medical collegescop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans: A. PHC(Ref Park 24/e p944, 23/e p9Ob, 221e p847).A psychiatrist is not posted at PHC.For sub-centre area of PHCApa from the essential staff, the desirable staff for both type A and type B PHC are:One of the two medical officers (MBBS) should be lady doctor, if the delivery case load is 30 or more per month.One AYUSH medical officer to provide choice to the people, where as AYUSH facility is not available in the vicinity.One staff nurse/nurse midwife.One health educator at the PHC.That makes total staff at type A PHC 18 and at type B PHC 21.subject_name: Social & Preventive Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

1a54dc09-051e-419b-879e-6d435f34f711

Which of the following is considered as high risk infant?

Working mother

Antenatal preeclampsia

Third child

Twins

single

Ans. A. Working mother Identification of 'At Risk' Infants * Bih weight < 2.5 Kg* Bih order 5 or more* Aificial feeding* Weight below 70% of expected weight (i.e. grade II & III malnutrition)* Failure to gain weight during 3 successive months* Children with PEM, Diarrhea.* Working mother, one parent.* Spacing of less than 1 year.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 1a54dc09-051e-419b-879e-6d435f34f711question: Which of the following is considered as high risk infant?opa: Working motheropb: Antenatal preeclampsiaopc: Third childopd: Twinscop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans. A. Working mother Identification of 'At Risk' Infants * Bih weight < 2.5 Kg* Bih order 5 or more* Aificial feeding* Weight below 70% of expected weight (i.e. grade II & III malnutrition)* Failure to gain weight during 3 successive months* Children with PEM, Diarrhea.* Working mother, one parent.* Spacing of less than 1 year.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

178bda2c-c1fc-47dd-8d73-ef6e7ddf0d22

. The most common fungal infection in the neonates transmitted by caregiver's hand is:

Candida albicans

Candida glabrata

Candida tropicalis

Candida parapsilosis

single

Ans. d. Candida parapsilosis"C. parapsilosis infections are esptecially associated with hyperalimentation solutions, prosthetic devices, and indwellingcatheters, as well as the nosoeomial sprcad of disease throagh the hands of health care workers

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 178bda2c-c1fc-47dd-8d73-ef6e7ddf0d22question: . The most common fungal infection in the neonates transmitted by caregiver's hand is:opa: Candida albicansopb: Candida glabrataopc: Candida tropicalisopd: Candida parapsilosiscop: 3choice_type: singleexp: Ans. d. Candida parapsilosis"C. parapsilosis infections are esptecially associated with hyperalimentation solutions, prosthetic devices, and indwellingcatheters, as well as the nosoeomial sprcad of disease throagh the hands of health care workerssubject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

0d75a2e6-67c5-46d4-a888-3912e99ee80f

In 1921, school dental nurse was started in

Adelaide

Wellington

New cross

Connecticut

single

Dental

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 0d75a2e6-67c5-46d4-a888-3912e99ee80fquestion: In 1921, school dental nurse was started inopa: Adelaideopb: Wellingtonopc: New crossopd: Connecticutcop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Dentaltopic_name: None

yes

ae5183a1-f2a6-4071-8cab-611ccc927599

A patient with Hb 7 was to be transfused with 2 packs of blood. The first pack was transfused in 2 hours after which vitals were stable and then the transfusion of the next pack was staed . But suddenly the patient develops breathlessness and hypeension. What can be the cause of this sudden reaction?

transfusion related circulatory overload (TACO)

allergic reaction to transfused blood

transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)

transfusion related acute renal failure

multi

Answer- C. transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is a serious blood transfusion complication characterized by the acute onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema following transfusion of blood products.Hypotension, and fever that develop within 6 hours after transfusion and usually resolve with suppoive care within 48 to 96 hours. Although hypotension is considered one of the impoant signs in diagnosing TRALI, hypeension can occur in some cases.

Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: ae5183a1-f2a6-4071-8cab-611ccc927599question: A patient with Hb 7 was to be transfused with 2 packs of blood. The first pack was transfused in 2 hours after which vitals were stable and then the transfusion of the next pack was staed . But suddenly the patient develops breathlessness and hypeension. What can be the cause of this sudden reaction?opa: transfusion related circulatory overload (TACO)opb: allergic reaction to transfused bloodopc: transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)opd: transfusion related acute renal failurecop: 2choice_type: multiexp: Answer- C. transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is a serious blood transfusion complication characterized by the acute onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema following transfusion of blood products.Hypotension, and fever that develop within 6 hours after transfusion and usually resolve with suppoive care within 48 to 96 hours. Although hypotension is considered one of the impoant signs in diagnosing TRALI, hypeension can occur in some cases.subject_name: Medicinetopic_name: None

yes

f447a6cc-d72e-4d0b-8330-ffc5c840394f

A patient of septic shock was given intravenous norepinephrine. The response to this drug is best checked by:

Increase in hea rate

Decrease in hea rate

Increase in mean aerial pressure

Decreased renal perfusion and reduced urine output

single

Ans. c. Increase in mean aerial pressureNoradrenaline is a powerful peripheral vasoconstrictor and inotrope and used in patients of septic shock and cardiogenic shock. Noradrenaline causes peripheral vasoconstriction thereby increasing diastolic blood pressure as well as venous return. The increase in diastolic blood pressure and systolic blood pressure can increase mean aerial pressure (MAP) which is the therapeutic outcome expected in any septic shock patient as a response to vasopressor.

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: f447a6cc-d72e-4d0b-8330-ffc5c840394fquestion: A patient of septic shock was given intravenous norepinephrine. The response to this drug is best checked by:opa: Increase in hea rateopb: Decrease in hea rateopc: Increase in mean aerial pressureopd: Decreased renal perfusion and reduced urine outputcop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ans. c. Increase in mean aerial pressureNoradrenaline is a powerful peripheral vasoconstrictor and inotrope and used in patients of septic shock and cardiogenic shock. Noradrenaline causes peripheral vasoconstriction thereby increasing diastolic blood pressure as well as venous return. The increase in diastolic blood pressure and systolic blood pressure can increase mean aerial pressure (MAP) which is the therapeutic outcome expected in any septic shock patient as a response to vasopressor.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

1fc4e91a-649c-4eb8-bf21-abc171e8231f

All are true regarding administration of betamethasone to a mother with premature delivery except –

Neonatal morbidity better

Helps lung maturity

Prevents hyperbilirubinemia

Decreases intraventricular hemorrhage

multi

Prevention of Prenatal steroids are effective in preventing HMD. Steroids acts by enhancing lung maturity.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 1fc4e91a-649c-4eb8-bf21-abc171e8231fquestion: All are true regarding administration of betamethasone to a mother with premature delivery except –opa: Neonatal morbidity betteropb: Helps lung maturityopc: Prevents hyperbilirubinemiaopd: Decreases intraventricular hemorrhagecop: 2choice_type: multiexp: Prevention of Prenatal steroids are effective in preventing HMD. Steroids acts by enhancing lung maturity.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

4f8a7da4-2f7c-4827-ab01-c5570cfbac40

Which of the following is most associated with respiratory alkalosis:-

Assisted control mode ventilation

Non invasive ventilation

Pressure controlled

SIMV

single

Option A- means that every few second breath will be delivered to the patient by the computer so this will be computer aided breathing by patient. Also, if patient is breathing himself computer will help the patient. Option B- it is an uncomfoable procedure for patient as its a tight-fitting mask so d/t discomfo patient tries to remove it. | Causing compromised ventilation | CO2 || in body | Respiration acidosis Option C-here number of breath/min remain same but the pressure exeed by the ventilation is extra.which might cause barotrauma But will not cause any derangement so option c is ruled out. It may contribute hypoventilation but never Hyperventilation. Hypoventilation if pressure Delivered is not proper then expansion of chest will not occur contributing to accum. of CO2 in body. Option D- Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation this ventilator modality mode is used when we try to vain of the patient on ventilator. Ventilatory Mode Variables set by user (independent) Variable Monitored by User (Dependent) Trigger cycle Limit Advantages Disadvantages ACMV (assist control veilation) Tidal volume ventilator rate FO2 PEEP level pressure limit Peak, mean, and plateau airway pressure VE ABG I/E ratio Patient effo Timer Pressure limit Patient control Guaranteed ventilation Potential hyperventilation Barotraumia and volume trauma Every effective breath generates & ventilator volume IMV (intermittent mandatory ventilation) Tidal volume Mandatory ventilator rate Fio2 PEEP Level Pressure limit Spontaneous breaths between assisted breaths Peak, mean, and plateau airway pressure VE ABG I/E ratio Patient effo Timer Pressure limit Patient control Comfo from spontaneous breaths Guaranteed ventilation Potential dysynchrony Potential hypo ventilation PSV (presssure-suppo ventilaton) Inspiratory pressure level Fio2 PEEP Pressure limit Tidal volume Respiratory rate VE ABG Pressure limit Inspiratory flow Patient control Comfo Assures synchromy No timer backup Potential hypo-ventilation NV (non invasive ventilation) Inspiratory and expiratory level Tidal volume Respiratory rate Pressure limit Inspiratory flow Patient control Mask interface may cause discomfo and facial bruising

Medicine

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 4f8a7da4-2f7c-4827-ab01-c5570cfbac40question: Which of the following is most associated with respiratory alkalosis:-opa: Assisted control mode ventilationopb: Non invasive ventilationopc: Pressure controlledopd: SIMVcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Option A- means that every few second breath will be delivered to the patient by the computer so this will be computer aided breathing by patient. Also, if patient is breathing himself computer will help the patient. Option B- it is an uncomfoable procedure for patient as its a tight-fitting mask so d/t discomfo patient tries to remove it. | Causing compromised ventilation | CO2 || in body | Respiration acidosis Option C-here number of breath/min remain same but the pressure exeed by the ventilation is extra.which might cause barotrauma But will not cause any derangement so option c is ruled out. It may contribute hypoventilation but never Hyperventilation. Hypoventilation if pressure Delivered is not proper then expansion of chest will not occur contributing to accum. of CO2 in body. Option D- Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation this ventilator modality mode is used when we try to vain of the patient on ventilator. Ventilatory Mode Variables set by user (independent) Variable Monitored by User (Dependent) Trigger cycle Limit Advantages Disadvantages ACMV (assist control veilation) Tidal volume ventilator rate FO2 PEEP level pressure limit Peak, mean, and plateau airway pressure VE ABG I/E ratio Patient effo Timer Pressure limit Patient control Guaranteed ventilation Potential hyperventilation Barotraumia and volume trauma Every effective breath generates & ventilator volume IMV (intermittent mandatory ventilation) Tidal volume Mandatory ventilator rate Fio2 PEEP Level Pressure limit Spontaneous breaths between assisted breaths Peak, mean, and plateau airway pressure VE ABG I/E ratio Patient effo Timer Pressure limit Patient control Comfo from spontaneous breaths Guaranteed ventilation Potential dysynchrony Potential hypo ventilation PSV (presssure-suppo ventilaton) Inspiratory pressure level Fio2 PEEP Pressure limit Tidal volume Respiratory rate VE ABG Pressure limit Inspiratory flow Patient control Comfo Assures synchromy No timer backup Potential hypo-ventilation NV (non invasive ventilation) Inspiratory and expiratory level Tidal volume Respiratory rate Pressure limit Inspiratory flow Patient control Mask interface may cause discomfo and facial bruisingsubject_name: Medicinetopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

eb49deaf-5611-4a19-8ad5-0cca73608043

Which of the following is not used in DIC?

Heparin

Epsilon amino caproic acid

Blood transfusion

Intravenous fluids.

single

Well friends, we have discussed the causes and investigations of DIC. Now here let’s take a look at its management.\ Management of DIC The most important step is to terminate the pregnancy- vaginal delivery without episiotomy is preferred to cesarean section Volume replacement by crystalloids or colloids will reduce the amount of whole blood needed to restore the blood volume. 500 ml of fresh blood raises the fibrinogen level approximately by 12.5 mg/100 ml and platelets by 10,000–15,000 cu mm. Fresh blood- helps in flushing out fibrin degradation product and improving the micro circulation. To replace fibrinogen- Fresh frozen plasma should be given: Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is extracted from whole blood. It contains fibrinogen, anti-thrombin III, clotting factors V, XI, XII. FFP transfusion provides both volume replacement and coagulation factors. One unit of FFP (250 mL) raises the fibrinogen by 5-10 mg/dL. FFP does not need to be ABO or Rh compatible. Cryoprecipitate is obtained from thawed FFP. It is rich in fibrinogen, factor VIII, Von Willebrand’s factor, and XIII. Cryoprecipitate provides less volume (40 mL) compared to FFP (250 mL). So it should not be used for volume replacement. One unit of cryoprecipitate increases the fibrinogen level by 5-10 mg/dL. In case of active bleeding with platelet counts < 50,000/ml or prophylactically with platelet count 20–30,000/ml – platelet replacement should be done. Platelet should ABO and Rh specific. 1 units (50 ml) raises the platelet count by 7500/ ml Recombinant activated factors VIIA: (60-100 μg/kg IV) can reverse DIC within 10 minute as it is a precusor for extrinsic clotting cascade which is replaced. Role of Heparin According to Williams Obs. “Heparin is not used in DIC.” According to COGDT 10/e, p 999 “Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by activating antithrombin III but has little effect on activated coagulation factors. Anticoagulation is contraindicated in patients with fulminant DIC and central nervous system insults, fulminant liver failure, or obstetric accidents. The one instance, however, in which heparin has been demonstrated to benefit pregnancy-related DIC is in the case of the retained dead fetus with intact vascular system, where heparin may be administered to interrupt the coagulation process and thrombocytopenia for several days until delivery may be implemented.” As far as EACA is concerned- Williams Obs. 22/e, p 844 says – “EACA is not recommended in case of DIC.” According to Williams Obs 23/e, p 787 “It use in most types of obstetric coagulopathy has not been efficacious & not recommended”

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: eb49deaf-5611-4a19-8ad5-0cca73608043question: Which of the following is not used in DIC?opa: Heparinopb: Epsilon amino caproic acidopc: Blood transfusionopd: Intravenous fluids.cop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Well friends, we have discussed the causes and investigations of DIC. Now here let’s take a look at its management.\ Management of DIC The most important step is to terminate the pregnancy- vaginal delivery without episiotomy is preferred to cesarean section Volume replacement by crystalloids or colloids will reduce the amount of whole blood needed to restore the blood volume. 500 ml of fresh blood raises the fibrinogen level approximately by 12.5 mg/100 ml and platelets by 10,000–15,000 cu mm. Fresh blood- helps in flushing out fibrin degradation product and improving the micro circulation. To replace fibrinogen- Fresh frozen plasma should be given: Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is extracted from whole blood. It contains fibrinogen, anti-thrombin III, clotting factors V, XI, XII. FFP transfusion provides both volume replacement and coagulation factors. One unit of FFP (250 mL) raises the fibrinogen by 5-10 mg/dL. FFP does not need to be ABO or Rh compatible. Cryoprecipitate is obtained from thawed FFP. It is rich in fibrinogen, factor VIII, Von Willebrand’s factor, and XIII. Cryoprecipitate provides less volume (40 mL) compared to FFP (250 mL). So it should not be used for volume replacement. One unit of cryoprecipitate increases the fibrinogen level by 5-10 mg/dL. In case of active bleeding with platelet counts < 50,000/ml or prophylactically with platelet count 20–30,000/ml – platelet replacement should be done. Platelet should ABO and Rh specific. 1 units (50 ml) raises the platelet count by 7500/ ml Recombinant activated factors VIIA: (60-100 μg/kg IV) can reverse DIC within 10 minute as it is a precusor for extrinsic clotting cascade which is replaced. Role of Heparin According to Williams Obs. “Heparin is not used in DIC.” According to COGDT 10/e, p 999 “Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by activating antithrombin III but has little effect on activated coagulation factors. Anticoagulation is contraindicated in patients with fulminant DIC and central nervous system insults, fulminant liver failure, or obstetric accidents. The one instance, however, in which heparin has been demonstrated to benefit pregnancy-related DIC is in the case of the retained dead fetus with intact vascular system, where heparin may be administered to interrupt the coagulation process and thrombocytopenia for several days until delivery may be implemented.” As far as EACA is concerned- Williams Obs. 22/e, p 844 says – “EACA is not recommended in case of DIC.” According to Williams Obs 23/e, p 787 “It use in most types of obstetric coagulopathy has not been efficacious & not recommended”subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

6343810a-6571-4662-b3a6-aa7e13a7c65b

How will you check the functioning of an ICD tube?

By observing for continuous air bubbles coming out of the underwater drain

By observing the movement of air water column in the tube during respiration

By taking X ray chest repeatedly

By auscultation

single

Chest drainage system: Follow-up: Patency of chest tube is assessed by observing the oscillations in water seal chamber with respiratory movements. Position of chest tube & resolution of intrapleural air or liquid is checked by x-ray (AP & cross table lateral). Tube should be pulled back if it crosses the mediastinum Removal: Chest tubes are generally removed when there has been air or fluid drainage of <200 ml in 24 hours for >24 hours .

Surgery

AIIMS 2017

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 6343810a-6571-4662-b3a6-aa7e13a7c65bquestion: How will you check the functioning of an ICD tube?opa: By observing for continuous air bubbles coming out of the underwater drainopb: By observing the movement of air water column in the tube during respirationopc: By taking X ray chest repeatedlyopd: By auscultationcop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Chest drainage system: Follow-up: Patency of chest tube is assessed by observing the oscillations in water seal chamber with respiratory movements. Position of chest tube & resolution of intrapleural air or liquid is checked by x-ray (AP & cross table lateral). Tube should be pulled back if it crosses the mediastinum Removal: Chest tubes are generally removed when there has been air or fluid drainage of <200 ml in 24 hours for >24 hours .subject_name: Surgerytopic_name: AIIMS 2017

yes

73944fde-aa45-4a1f-a140-e56d201ed4b0

Which of the following statements is true or false regarding the CPR technique?1. Czan be given irrespective of rib fracture.2. An adult chest compression : breath is 30 : 2 to 15 : 2 even if 2nd rescuer present.3. In infants ratio change from 30 : 2 to 15 : 2 when 2nd rescuer arrive.4. Chest compression at rate of 100 - 120 / min on adults and 90 per minute in infants.

a is false and b, c, d are true

a, b are true & c, d are false

a, c, d are true & b is false

b, c are true & a, d are false

multi

Ans: A is false & b, c, d are trueCPR technique cannot be given to patients with rib fracture.In CPR technique, an adult chest compression : breath is 30 : 2 to 15 : 2 even if 2nd rescuer present.In infants ratio change from 30 : 2 to 15 : 2 when 2nd rescuer arrive.Chest compression at rate of 100 - 120 / min on adults and 90 per minute in infants.

Anaesthesia

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 73944fde-aa45-4a1f-a140-e56d201ed4b0question: Which of the following statements is true or false regarding the CPR technique?1. Czan be given irrespective of rib fracture.2. An adult chest compression : breath is 30 : 2 to 15 : 2 even if 2nd rescuer present.3. In infants ratio change from 30 : 2 to 15 : 2 when 2nd rescuer arrive.4. Chest compression at rate of 100 - 120 / min on adults and 90 per minute in infants.opa: a is false and b, c, d are trueopb: a, b are true & c, d are falseopc: a, c, d are true & b is falseopd: b, c are true & a, d are falsecop: 0choice_type: multiexp: Ans: A is false & b, c, d are trueCPR technique cannot be given to patients with rib fracture.In CPR technique, an adult chest compression : breath is 30 : 2 to 15 : 2 even if 2nd rescuer present.In infants ratio change from 30 : 2 to 15 : 2 when 2nd rescuer arrive.Chest compression at rate of 100 - 120 / min on adults and 90 per minute in infants.subject_name: Anaesthesiatopic_name: None

yes

621316dd-5ef8-4ba1-953c-6f214b414b56

A woman with 20 weeks pregnancy presents with bleeding per vaginum. On speculum examination, the os is open but no products have comes t. The most likely diagnosis is:

Incomplete aboion

Complete aboion

Inevitable aboion

Missed aboion

single

Answer- C. Inevitable aboionInevitatrle Aboion:Clinical picture: Bleeding, pain and shockSize of uterus: Equal or lessInternal os: Open with products feltUltrasound: Dead fetus

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 621316dd-5ef8-4ba1-953c-6f214b414b56question: A woman with 20 weeks pregnancy presents with bleeding per vaginum. On speculum examination, the os is open but no products have comes t. The most likely diagnosis is:opa: Incomplete aboionopb: Complete aboionopc: Inevitable aboionopd: Missed aboioncop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Answer- C. Inevitable aboionInevitatrle Aboion:Clinical picture: Bleeding, pain and shockSize of uterus: Equal or lessInternal os: Open with products feltUltrasound: Dead fetussubject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

ac195c22-e47e-49f9-87d5-87b26416ea05

18 months old child, who has received one dose of DPT and OPV at 2 months of age. What will be your next immunization plan :

Restart immunization schedule, as per age

Measles, BCG, booster dose of DPT and OPV

Measles, booster dose of DPT and OPV

BCG, 2ND dose of DPT and OPV

single

A lapse in the immunization schedule does not require reinitiation of entire vaccine series. Immunization should be given at the next visit in the usual doses assuming that the minimum interval has already elapsed and the imunization should be completed at the next available opportunity". D.P.T. and oral polio vaccine which the child already had should be considered as the first dose. The child would need further 2 doses of this vaccine to complete the primary vaccination. Booster doses are administered, once the primary immunization is complete. Thus you cannot administer booster doses of D.P.T. and O.P.V. as their primary immunization is not complete.

Pediatrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: ac195c22-e47e-49f9-87d5-87b26416ea05question: 18 months old child, who has received one dose of DPT and OPV at 2 months of age. What will be your next immunization plan :opa: Restart immunization schedule, as per ageopb: Measles, BCG, booster dose of DPT and OPVopc: Measles, booster dose of DPT and OPVopd: BCG, 2ND dose of DPT and OPVcop: 3choice_type: singleexp: A lapse in the immunization schedule does not require reinitiation of entire vaccine series. Immunization should be given at the next visit in the usual doses assuming that the minimum interval has already elapsed and the imunization should be completed at the next available opportunity". D.P.T. and oral polio vaccine which the child already had should be considered as the first dose. The child would need further 2 doses of this vaccine to complete the primary vaccination. Booster doses are administered, once the primary immunization is complete. Thus you cannot administer booster doses of D.P.T. and O.P.V. as their primary immunization is not complete.subject_name: Pediatricstopic_name: None

yes

c4256578-82f3-4cb8-891a-be9864c80547

Most commonly used route of administration of heparin for post-operative thromboprophylaxis is?

Subcutaneous

Intravenous

Inhalational

Intramuscular

single

UFH is injected s.c. every 8- 12 hours, staed before surgery and continued for 7-10 day, or till the patient stas moving about. This regimen has been found to prevent postoperative deep vein thrombosis (post operative thromboprophylaxis) without increasing surgical bleeding. It also does not prolong aPTT or clotting time. However, it should not he used in case of neurosurgery or when spinal anaesthesia is to be given.

Pharmacology

AIIMS 2019

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: c4256578-82f3-4cb8-891a-be9864c80547question: Most commonly used route of administration of heparin for post-operative thromboprophylaxis is?opa: Subcutaneousopb: Intravenousopc: Inhalationalopd: Intramuscularcop: 0choice_type: singleexp: UFH is injected s.c. every 8- 12 hours, staed before surgery and continued for 7-10 day, or till the patient stas moving about. This regimen has been found to prevent postoperative deep vein thrombosis (post operative thromboprophylaxis) without increasing surgical bleeding. It also does not prolong aPTT or clotting time. However, it should not he used in case of neurosurgery or when spinal anaesthesia is to be given.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: AIIMS 2019

yes

7bb29056-c6b1-4d7b-b513-e6eab45eeb86

A 16 years old girl walks into your clinics and asks for Ca cervix vaccination.Which of the following should be administered?

Gardasil 9

Biovac

Polymer 7

Cohen 5

single

Ans. A.Gardasil 9Gardasil 9 is an HPV vaccine approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and can be used for both girls and boys.This vaccine can prevent most cases of cervical cancer if given before a girl or woman is exposed to the virus.HPV Vaccines* Cervarix - Protects against HPV-16, 18.* Gardasil 4 Protects against HPV - 6, 11, 16, 18.* Gardasil -9 - Protects against HPV - 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58.

Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 7bb29056-c6b1-4d7b-b513-e6eab45eeb86question: A 16 years old girl walks into your clinics and asks for Ca cervix vaccination.Which of the following should be administered?opa: Gardasil 9opb: Biovacopc: Polymer 7opd: Cohen 5cop: 0choice_type: singleexp: Ans. A.Gardasil 9Gardasil 9 is an HPV vaccine approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and can be used for both girls and boys.This vaccine can prevent most cases of cervical cancer if given before a girl or woman is exposed to the virus.HPV Vaccines* Cervarix - Protects against HPV-16, 18.* Gardasil 4 Protects against HPV - 6, 11, 16, 18.* Gardasil -9 - Protects against HPV - 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58.subject_name: Gynaecology & Obstetricstopic_name: None

yes

0f589144-f2e9-4377-850f-9dc2aaf127da

One unit of PRBC raises HCT by: (In exam instead of HCT, they wrote HCV, which we assume to be a spelling error):

1%

2%

3-5%

5-8%

single

Surgery

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 0f589144-f2e9-4377-850f-9dc2aaf127daquestion: One unit of PRBC raises HCT by: (In exam instead of HCT, they wrote HCV, which we assume to be a spelling error):opa: 1%opb: 2%opc: 3-5%opd: 5-8%cop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Nonesubject_name: Surgerytopic_name: None

yes

59110b4f-4074-4293-aa6d-96b1a6b49b82

Which of the following injection is available for subcutaneous administration?

Albuterol

Terbutaline

Metaproteronol

Pirbuterol

single

Ans. b. Terbutaline (Ref KDT 7/e p133, 223, 6/e p127, 323; Katzung 11/e p344, 227)Terbutaline can be given by subcutaneous route.Terbutaline is adrenergic agonist. Its sabcutaneous injection is used in patients with severe exacerbations of asthma.

Pharmacology

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 59110b4f-4074-4293-aa6d-96b1a6b49b82question: Which of the following injection is available for subcutaneous administration?opa: Albuterolopb: Terbutalineopc: Metaproteronolopd: Pirbuterolcop: 1choice_type: singleexp: Ans. b. Terbutaline (Ref KDT 7/e p133, 223, 6/e p127, 323; Katzung 11/e p344, 227)Terbutaline can be given by subcutaneous route.Terbutaline is adrenergic agonist. Its sabcutaneous injection is used in patients with severe exacerbations of asthma.subject_name: Pharmacologytopic_name: None

yes

a9c3188c-2a4d-4745-98d4-ee92580905c4

To prevent ventilator associated pneumonia, the most effective and evidence based results are seen with which of the following for critically ill patients:

Betadine mouthwash

Oral hygiene procedures plus chlorhexidine

Manual brushing

Powered brushing

multi

Dental

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: a9c3188c-2a4d-4745-98d4-ee92580905c4question: To prevent ventilator associated pneumonia, the most effective and evidence based results are seen with which of the following for critically ill patients:opa: Betadine mouthwashopb: Oral hygiene procedures plus chlorhexidineopc: Manual brushingopd: Powered brushingcop: 1choice_type: multiexp: Nonesubject_name: Dentaltopic_name: None

yes

0c9337fa-55ba-4441-8da7-99d451749ccf

Broken ampula is thrown into which coloured bin?

Red

Yellow

Blue

Black

single

Ans. C. BlueCOLOR CODING & TYPES OF CONTAINER: Colour codingType of ContainerWaste CategoryTreatment optionsYellowPlastic BagsHuman and animal wastes, Microbial and Biological wastes and soiled wastes(Cat 1,2,3 and 6)Incineration/ Deep BurialRedDisinfected container/ Plastic bagsMicrobiological and Biological wastes, Soiled wastes, Solid wastes(Cat 3,6,7)Autoclave/ Microwave/ Chemical Treatment)Blue/ White/ TransparentPlastic bag, Puncture proof containerWaste sharps and solid waste( Cat 4 &7)Autoclave/ Microwave/ Chemical Treatment Destruction and ShreddingBlackPlastic bagDiscarded medicines, Cytotoxic drugs, Incineration ash and chemical waste(Cat 5,9 & 10)Disposal in secured land fillsGreenPlastic ContainerGeneral waste such as office waste, food waste & garden wasteDisposed in secured landfills

Social & Preventive Medicine

Now is the following question-answer exclusively nursing-related?: id: 0c9337fa-55ba-4441-8da7-99d451749ccfquestion: Broken ampula is thrown into which coloured bin?opa: Redopb: Yellowopc: Blueopd: Blackcop: 2choice_type: singleexp: Ans. C. BlueCOLOR CODING & TYPES OF CONTAINER: Colour codingType of ContainerWaste CategoryTreatment optionsYellowPlastic BagsHuman and animal wastes, Microbial and Biological wastes and soiled wastes(Cat 1,2,3 and 6)Incineration/ Deep BurialRedDisinfected container/ Plastic bagsMicrobiological and Biological wastes, Soiled wastes, Solid wastes(Cat 3,6,7)Autoclave/ Microwave/ Chemical Treatment)Blue/ White/ TransparentPlastic bag, Puncture proof containerWaste sharps and solid waste( Cat 4 &7)Autoclave/ Microwave/ Chemical Treatment Destruction and ShreddingBlackPlastic bagDiscarded medicines, Cytotoxic drugs, Incineration ash and chemical waste(Cat 5,9 & 10)Disposal in secured land fillsGreenPlastic ContainerGeneral waste such as office waste, food waste & garden wasteDisposed in secured landfillssubject_name: Social & Preventive Medicinetopic_name: None

yes